A car starts from an initial velocity of 10m/s and accelerates at 2.5m/s².how long will it take the car to reach a speed of 40m/s.. How far doea the car travel during this time?

When the average velocity is 2.4 m/s, the horizontal 0.35 meter diameter cast iron water pipe experiences a pressure drop (P) of roughly 16457.14 kPa every 100 meters.

To determine the pressure drop per 100-meter length of a horizontal 0.35-meter diameter cast iron water pipe, we can use the Darcy-Weisbach equation. The equation is as follows:

\(\begin{equation}\Delta P = \frac{f \cdot \frac{L}{D} \cdot (\rho \cdot V^2)}{2}\)

where ΔP is the pressure drop, f is the Darcy friction factor, L is the length of the pipe (100 meters in this case), D is the diameter of the pipe (0.35 meters), ρ is the density of water, and V is the average velocity of water.

To calculate the pressure drop, we need to determine the Darcy friction factor. For a rough cast iron pipe, we can estimate the friction factor to be around 0.02.

Using the given values and the estimated friction factor, the calculation becomes:

\(\begin{equation}\Delta P = \frac{0.02 \cdot \frac{100}{0.35} \cdot (\rho \cdot 2.4^2)}{2}\)

Since the density of water (ρ) is approximately 1000 kg/m³, we can substitute this value and calculate the pressure drop:

ΔP = \(\frac{0.02 \times \frac{100}{0.35} \times 1000 \times 2.4^2}{2}\)

Let's solve the expression to calculate the pressure drop (ΔP) in kilopascals (kPa):

ΔP =  \(\frac{0.02 \times \frac{100}{0.35} \times 1000 \times 2.4^2}{2}\)

First, let's simplify the expression:

ΔP = \(\frac{0.02 \times (285.714) \times (1000 \times 5.76)}{2}\)

   = 16457.14

Therefore, the pressure drop (ΔP) per 100-meter length of the horizontal 0.35-meter diameter cast iron water pipe, when the average velocity is 2.4 m/s, is approximately 16457.14 kPa.

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Complete question :

Determine the pressure drop per 100 -m length of horizontal new 0.35−m-diameter cast iron water pipe when the average velocity 2.4 m/s. Δp= kPa

Answer:

Explanation:

This is a product of a mass and velocity of a moving or a rest body.

it is expressed as P(momentum)=M(mass) × V(velocity)

Its SI unit is kgm/s

From our question.

Given

Momentum=3600kgm/s

Velocity=6m/s

RTF=Mass

Solution

P=M×V

M=P/V

= 3600kgm/s

6m/s

Answer:

False

Explanation:

Just took the test

False, because hypochondriacs think they have a significant, undetected medical ailment even when testing reveal they are healthy.

A hypochondriac is someone who, despite diagnostic testing showing they have no health issues, lives in constant anxiety that they have a terrible, undetected medical illness. They are obsessed with the concept that they suffer from a major illness that has gone untreated.

In adults, hypochondriasis often begins to manifest. Among the symptoms are a persistent, strong anxiety of developing a major illness and concern that seemingly little symptoms portend a larger problem. A patient may change physicians or see them regularly.

Medication and counselling could be helpful.

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Answer:

When the tree is at rest, its leaves are also at rest. But when we bring the tree in motion by means of shaking it, due to the inertia of leaves they still tend to be in rest. Thus, force is acting on leaves vigorously with changing direction rapidly. This results in detaching of leaves from the tree.

Explanation:

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Sound waves travel through the air and can be blocked by walls. When a sound wave passes through a wall, the wall absorbs some of the sound energy, resulting in the higher-pitched sound waves being blocked more than lower-pitched sound waves.

This is because higher-pitched sound waves have shorter wavelengths, making them more susceptible to being blocked than lower-pitched sound waves, which have longer wavelengths.

This phenomenon is known as wave-particle duality, which states that sound waves have both particle-like and wave-like properties. The particle-like property of higher-pitched sound waves makes them more susceptible to being blocked by walls than lower-pitched sound waves. This is why you can hear lower-pitched sounds more clearly when they pass through a wall.

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Answer: a

Explanation:

The rate fuel comsumption is  36.26lbm/h.

Mass flow rate is the rate at which a mass-containing substance moves through a given area in a given amount of time. It is measured in units of kilograms per second according to the SI unit system.

The rate fuel comsumption formula is:

\(m_{fuel} = W_{out} / n_{thermal} *q_{HV}\)

Substituting the values we get:

\(m_{fuel} = 65} *(2544.43/1)/0.24* (19000)\)

\(m_{fuel}\) = 165387.95 / 4560

\(m_{fuel}\) = 36.26lbm/h

Therefore, the rate fuel comsumption is  36.26lbm/h.

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The acceleration of the car will be 9m/s2.

Acceleration is the rate of change in velocity. Involves a change in speed and direction. When acceleration involves a change in speed only: Positive acceleration it occurs when an object speeds up. Negative acceleration occurs when an object slows down. Acceleration is a change of velocity over a period of time.

Using the formula;

\(a = \frac{v-u}{t}\)

v = final velocity (45mph)

u = initial velocity (0)

t = 5 seconds

\(a = \frac{45 - 0}{5}\)

a = 9m/s2.

In conclusion, the acceleration of the car will be 9m/s2.

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The acceleration of the car moving with a velocity of 13.37m/s in 5s is 2.67m/s²

Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity with time. It is the measure how fast velocity changes in meters per second squared (m/s^2). Acceleration is a vector quantity.

Acceleration = change in velocity/ time

therefore a= (v-u)/t

where v = final velocity and u= initial velocity, t is the time

since 1meter = 0.000621miles and 60×60 seconds is 1hour, then

45 mph to m/s is 45×1609.344/60×60

= 48120.48/3600= 13.37m/s

a= (13.37-0)/5

a= 13.37/5

a= 2.67m/s²

therefore the acceleration of the car is 2.67m/s²

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The luminosity of the star is approximately 2.78 x 10²⁷ watts.

Luminosity Distance Formula:

The formula for luminosity distance is given by,

Dl= sqrt(L/4πF)

Where;

Dl is the luminosity distance,

L is the luminosity of the light source, and

F is the measured flux.

To find the luminosity distance, Dl, given the apparent brightness of a particular star and the distance to the star, we use the following equation: d = sqrt(l / (4πb))

Where d is the distance to the star, l is the luminosity of the star, and b is the apparent brightness of the star.

We are given the following:

Apparent brightness of the star, b = 7.8 x 10^-10 watt/m²

Distance to the star, d = 21 light years.

We need to find the luminosity of the star, l.

The distance to the star in meters can be calculated as follows:

1 light year = 9.461 × 10¹⁵ meters

21 light years = 21 × 9.461 × 10¹⁵ meters

                      = 1.988 × 10¹⁷ meters

Now, we can substitute the given values in the formula

d = sqrt(l / (4πb)) and solve for l:

1.988 × 10¹⁷ = sqrt(l / (4π x 7.8 × 10⁻¹⁰))

l = (4π x 7.8 × 10⁻¹⁰) x (1.988 × 10¹⁷)²

l ≈ 2.78 x 10²⁷ W

Thus, the luminosity of the star is 2.78 x 10²⁷ watts.

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The required mass of the object when net force on it, distance moved and final velocity are given is calculated to be 4 kg.

The net force on the unknown mass object is 20 N.

Distance travelled is 10 m.

Final velocity is 10 m/s.

The object starts from rest, so u = 0.

Mass of the object is to be calculated.

The force is given by the expression, F = m a

Making 'm' as subject, we have,

m = F/a ---(1)

Acceleration can be found using the expression, v² - u² = 2 a s ---(2)

a = (v² - u²)/2 s = (10² - 0)/(2×10) = 100/20 = 5 m/s²

Using it in (1),

m = F/a = 20/5 = 4 kg

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The force between q₁ and q₂ is -1.17 x 10⁻³ N, net force on q₁ is -14.40117 N, force between q₂ and q₃ is 1.09 x 10⁻³ N.

The given information suggests that there are two particles, q₁ and q₂. The force on q₁ due to q₂ is given by Coulomb's law:

F₂ = k(q₁q₂/r²)

Where, k = Coulomb's constant (k = 8.99 x 10⁹ Nm²/C²), q₁ and q₂ = charges of particles in Coulombs, and r = distance between the particles in meters.

The net force on q₁ is the vector sum of the forces on q₁ due to all other charges.

Given data:

Charge on q₁, q₁ = +13.0 μC = +13.0 x 10⁻⁶ C

Charge on q₂, q₂ = -5.90 μC = -5.90 x 10⁻⁶ C

Distance between q₁ and q₂, r = 0.30 m

Distance between q₁ and q₃, d = 0.55 m

Charge on q₃, q₃ = +7.70 μC = +7.70 x 10⁻⁶ C

Force between q₁ and q₃, F₁ = -14.4 N

Now, calculate the force between q₁ and q₂ as follows:

F₂ = k(q₁q₂/r²)

F₂ = (8.99 x 10⁹ Nm²/C²) [(+13.0 x 10⁻⁶ C) x (-5.90 x 10⁻⁶ C) / (0.30 m)²]

F₂ = -1.17 x 10⁻³ N

(The negative sign indicates that the force is attractive)

Therefore, the force between q₁ and q₂ is -1.17 x 10⁻³ N.

The net force on q₁ is given by the vector sum of the forces on q₁ due to q₂ and q₃:

Net force on q₁ = F₁ + F₂

Net force on q₁ = (-14.4 N) + (-1.17 x 10⁻³ N)

Net force on q₁ = -14.40117 N

Therefore, the net force on q₁ is -14.40117 N.

Finally, calculate the force between q₂ and q₃, which can be found using Coulomb's law as:

F₃ = k(q₂q₃/d²)

F₃ = (8.99 x 10⁹ Nm²/C²) [(-5.90 x 10⁻⁶ C) x (+7.70 x 10⁻⁶ C) / (0.55 m)²]

F₃ = 1.09 x 10⁻³ N

(The positive sign indicates that the force is repulsive)

Therefore, the force between q₂ and q₃ is 1.09 x 10⁻³ N.

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Suppose we have a problem that currently takes 100,000 hours of computer time using current technology to solve. Which would give us the solution first and find the solution using the current algorithm with the new technology is as follow:

In the given case, whether replacing the algorithm used in the current solution by one that runs twice as fast and run it on the current technology or waiting 3 years, assuming Moore's law doubles the performance of a computer every 18 months, which would give us the solution first:

Replacing the algorithm used in the current solution by one that runs twice as fast and run it on the current technology would give us the solution first. This is because the running time of the new algorithm is half the running time of the current algorithm. Therefore, the new algorithm would take 50,000 hours of computer time to solve the problem.

The solution using the current algorithm with the new technology would take 25,000 hours of computer time to solve the problem as 3 years is equal to 6 half-lives of 18 months for Moore's law to double the performance of a computer. The performance would increase by a factor of 2^6 = 64 times.

Therefore, the running time of the current algorithm with the new technology would be 100,000 / 64 = 1,563 hours, which is much faster than the original 100,000 hours of computer time but slower than 50,000 hours of computer time.

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Answer:

Cold to hot.

Explanation:

Heat can never flow from cold to hot, heat transfers itself from hot to cold.

Yes. Many people either know the answer, or can figure it out using the information in the picture.

The magnitude of net force mostly on central charge is greater in case 1 than case 2, according to the supplied statement.

Magnitude is a term used in physics to describe an object's maximal size and direction. Vector and Scalar quantities both utilise magnitude as a common factor. The size of anything is its magnitude. For instance, a car is travelling more quickly than a bike in terms of speed. The speed difference between the automobile and the bike in this case is greater. It reveals the absolute or relative size or direction that an item moves when in motion.

In scenario 1, the field lines of the two charges will face the same direction.

Case 1 will have downward-pointing field lines caused by negative charge and downward-facing field lines caused by positive charge. net Electric field is equal to E+E at 2E and F at 2qE.

However, in this scenario, there will be two opposing field lines caused by the two charges.

E-E = 0 F = 0 Net electric field

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The complete question is-

Consider the two cases shown below. In both cases a central charge q has two charges of equal magnitude at equal distances above and below it. In Case 1 the signs of the two outer charges is opposite, and in Case 2 they are both positive. You are not told the sign of the charge in the center q.

Question: In which Case is the magnitude of the net force on the center charge bigger?

a). Case 1

b). Case 2

c). They are the same

d). The answer depends on the sign of the charge in the center q

Answer:

The potential energy at point 'P' due to the first charge can be found as follows:

V1=kq1r1V1=(9.0×109N.m2/C2)(+1.0×10−5C)1.0mV1=9.0×104VV1=kq1r1V1=(9.0×109N.m2/C2)(+1.0×10−5C)1.0mV1=9.0×104V

The potential energy at point 'P' due to the second charge can be found as follows:

V2=kq2r2V2=(9.0×109N.m2/C2)(−5.0×10−6C)1.0mV2=−4.5×104VV2=kq2r2V2=(9.0×109N.m2/C2)(−5.0×10−6C)1.0mV2=−4.5×104V

Since the electric potential is the scalar quantity, therefore,

The electric petential at point 'P' due to the two given charges:

VP=V1+V2VP=9.0×104V+(−4.5×104V)VP=4.5×104VVP=V1+V2VP=9.0×104V+(−4.5×104V)VP=4.5×104V

When third charge q3=+2μC=+2.0×10−6Cq3=+2μC=+2.0×10−6C is placed at point 'P', then

The electric potential energy of the charge q3q3 can be expressed as follows:

U3=q3VPU3=q3VP

After plugging in the values, we have:

U3=(+2.0×10−6C)(−4.5

Explanation:

hope this helps

Answer:

Electromagnetic field, a property of space caused by the motion of an electric charge. A stationary charge will produce only an electric field in the surrounding space. If the charge is moving, a magnetic field is also produced. An electric field can be produced also by a changing magnetic field.

Answer:

Hey mate.....

Explanation:

This is ur answer......

Winds and currents in the Pacific flow predominantly from East to West. Above the equator Pacific Ocean trade winds blow from the northeast. Below the equator they blow from the southeast.

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Answer:

I thinks it's C...not sure tho

The gravitational force between an astronaut of mass 150 kg and the ISS at a distance of 20 m from its center of mass is approximately 9.254 × 10⁻⁸ N. However, other factors like air resistance and velocity could affect the actual force experienced by the astronaut.

To answer your question about the force on a 150-kg astronaut near the International Space Station (ISS), we'll need to use the formula for gravitational force:

F = G * (m1 * m2) / r²

where F is the force, G is the gravitational constant (6.674 × 10⁻¹¹ N m²/kg²), m1 is the mass of the ISS (approximately 370,000 kg), m2 is the mass of the astronaut (150 kg), and r is the distance from the center of mass (20 m).

(a) Plugging in the given values, we get:

F = (6.674 × 10⁻¹¹ N m²/kg²) * (370,000 kg * 150 kg) / (20 m)²

F ≈ 9.254 × 10⁻⁸ N¹
So, the force on the 150-kg astronaut when she is 20 m from the center of mass of the International Space Station is approximately 9.254 × 10⁻⁸ N.

(b) The accuracy of this answer depends on the accuracy of the given values and the assumptions made (e.g., considering the ISS and the astronaut as point masses). However, this calculation gives a reasonable estimate of the gravitational force between the ISS and the astronaut. Keep in mind that other factors, such as air resistance and the astronaut's velocity, could influence the actual force experienced by the astronaut.

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Slab Pull  theory of plate movement relies on the weight of subducting crust.

A cold, dense oceanic plate that is falling into the mantle as a result of its own weight is said to be exerting a slab pull. According to the hypothesis, the oceanic plate sinks into the mantle because it has a higher density than the hotter mantle underneath it. Subduction is the process through which a tectonic plate descends into the mantle.

One sort of convergent boundary where two tectonic plates are clashing is a subduction zone. There may be divergent boundaries between two oceanic plates.

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Answer:

sequence

Explanation:

sequences are the way in which things are ordered, for example: 1, 2, 3, 4 is a sequence:)

The correlation coefficient between the wattage or heating area is approximately 0.2565, indicating a weak positive relationship. As wattage increases, there is a tendency for the heating area to increase, but the relationship is not strong or consistent.

The Pearson correlation coefficient is a statistical metric that may be used to determine the relationship between wattage and heating area. This coefficient has a range of -1 to +1, with +1 denoting a perfect positive correlation, 0 denoting no connection, and -1 denoting a perfect negative correlation.

We determine that the correlation coefficient for the provided data is around 0.2565, after computing it. The wattage and heating area are directly related since the correlation coefficient is positive. However, the correlation is weak, as indicated by the value of 0.2565. In other words, there is a little but positive correlation between the wattage and heating surface area of electric space heaters.

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CQ

A consumer buying cooperative test 20 different electric space heaters with various wattages were tested for their ability to effectively heat a space. These are the outcomes.

Area of Heater Wattage

1 750 125, 2 1,000 145, 3 1,750 204, 4 2,000 132, 5 1,500 108, 6 1,000 51, 7 1,250 232, 8 750 128, 9 2,000 297, 10 1,250 271, 11 1,500 41, 12 1,750 275, 13 2,000 285, 14 2,000 259, 15 1,500 156, 16 1,250 252, 17 750 61, 18 750 72, 19 1,500 41, 20 1,250 164

Calculate the relationship between heating area and wattage. Is there an indirect or direct connection?

the volume of the cavity inside the ball is 5.3 × 10⁻⁴ m³.

The density of water is 1 g/cc or 1000 kg/m³. The density of steel is 7.99 g/cc or 7990 kg/m³. Therefore, the weight of a 1.10 kg steel ball in water can be expressed as follows;

Weight of steel ball in water = Weight of steel ball - Buoyant force

\(W = mg - Fb\)

From the question, weight in water is 8.75 N, and the mass of the steel ball is 1.10 kg. Therefore,  W = 8.75 N and m = 1.10 kg.

Substituting the values in the equation above, we have;

8.75 N = (1.10 kg) (9.8 m/s²) - Fb

Solving for Fb, we have

Fb = 1.10 (9.8) - 8.75

= 0.53 N

The buoyant force is equal to the weight of the water displaced.

Thus, volume = (Buoyant force) / (density of water)

Substituting the values in the equation above, we have;

V = Fb / ρV

= 0.53 N / (1000 kg/m³)

V = 0.00053 m³

= 5.3 × 10⁻⁴ m³

Hence, the volume of the cavity inside the ball is 5.3 × 10⁻⁴ m³.

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Answer:

i guess u could pick "B" :)

Explanation:

Answer:

The water cycle is a never-ending cycle, driven by the sun, which warms the water, giving the particles more energy and causing them to evaporate to form water vapour (a gas). As the particles rise higher, they cool down and condense (turn back into a liquid) into a cloud.

The process by which water cycle is related to particulate nature of matter is discussed above.

The water cycle or hydrologic cycle or the hydrological cycle, is a biogeochemical cycle that describes the continuous movement of water on, above and below the surface of the Earth.

Given is to find how does water cycle is related to particulate nature of matter.

Therefore, the process by which water cycle is related to particulate nature of matter is discussed above.

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Answer: OD. Protons and neutrons

Explanation: They are both in the nucleus. The electrons are outside.