a nurse is preparing to assess a newborn immediately after birth using the apgar score. which area would the nurse include in this assessment? select all that apply.

Answers

Answer 1

All of the above: Respiratory effort, color, Heart rate and muscle tone must be included in this assessment. The Apgar score is a quick assessment tool used to evaluate a newborn's overall health immediately after birth. Each area is scored from 0-2 and the scores are added up to give a total score out of 10.

The nurse would include the following areas in the assessment using the Apgar score:
1. Heart rate (pulse)
2. Respiration (breathing rate and effort)
3. Muscle tone (activity)
4. Reflex irritability (grimace)
5. Skin color(Appearance)

A score of 7-10 is considered normal, while a score of less than 7 may indicate the need for further medical attention. The nurse will provide a detailed explanation of the assessment findings to the healthcare provider and document the score in the newborn's medical record. These five areas are crucial for determining the newborn's overall health and well-being. The Apgar score is assessed at one minute and five minutes after birth, and each area is scored from 0 to 2, with a total score ranging from 0 to 10.

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Full question:

A nurse is preparing to assess a newborn immediately after birth using the apgar score. Which area would the nurse include in this assessment? Select all that apply:

Respiratory effortColorHeart rateMuscle tone

Related Questions

What are the ways to regulate blood pressure ?!​

Answers

Answer:

Lose extra pounds and watch your waistline. Blood pressure often increases as weight increases.

Exercise regularly.  

Eat a healthy diet.

Reduce sodium in your diet.  

Limit the amount of alcohol you drink.

Quit smoking.

Cut back on caffeine.

Reduce your stress.

Explanation:

These are just some ideas!

Brainliest? Hope this helped?

How do martin’s feelings about the medicine bag change over the course of story?

Answers

Answer:

Put the events in order to show how Martin's feelings change over the course of the story. Use the number 1 for the first event.

✔ 3

I stood up to take the bag, somehow knowing I should.

✔ 1

I wanted to sink right through the pavement.

✔ 4

[I] put the sacred sage in my medicine bag.

✔ 2

I didn't want them laughing at

Explanation: I just had this question and t it right this is 100% the answer please give thanks and mark as branliest

Discuss parenteral and enteral nutrition. Why would these sources of nutrition be utilized in the clinical setting

Answers

Answer:

Enteral nutrition generally refers to any method of feeding that uses the gastrointestinal (GI) tract to deliver part or all of a person's caloric requirements. It can include a normal oral diet, the use of liquid supplements or delivery of part or all of the daily requirements by use of a tube (tube feeding). The site of entry of the tube and tube types will be discussed under "enteral access". Parenteral nutrition refers to the delivery of calories and nutrients into a vein. This could be as simple as carbohydrate calories delivered as simple sugar in an intravenous solution or all of the required nutrients could be delivered including carbohydrate, protein, fat, electrolytes (for example sodium and potassium), vitamins and trace elements (for example copper and zinc). There are many reasons for enteral and parenteral nutrition including GI disorders such as bowel obstruction, short bowel syndrome, Crohn's disease, and ulcerative colitis; as well as certain cancers or in comatose patients. While enteral nutrition is always preferred when technically possible, some people may have a variety of medical issues that make the safe use of the GI tract difficult. Alternatively, their calorie and nutrient needs may not be met by the current level of functioning of their GI tract. That is when parenteral nutrition may be needed to help an individual remain hydrated and possibly to provide calories and other nutrients to allow for growth and development or maintenance of physical well-being and function. Enteral nutrition generally refers to any method of feeding that uses the gastrointestinal (GI) tract to deliver part or all of a person's caloric requirements. It can include a normal oral diet, the use of liquid supplements or delivery of part or all of the daily requirements by use of a tube (tube feeding). The site of entry of the tube and tube types will be discussed under "enteral access". Parenteral nutrition refers to the delivery of calories and nutrients into a vein. This could be as simple as carbohydrate calories delivered as simple sugar in an intravenous solution or all of the required nutrients could be delivered including carbohydrate, protein, fat, electrolytes (for example sodium and potassium), vitamins and trace elements (for example copper and zinc). There are many reasons for enteral and parenteral nutrition including GI disorders such as bowel obstruction, short bowel syndrome, Crohn's disease, and ulcerative colitis; as well as certain cancers or in comatose patients. While enteral nutrition is always preferred when technically possible, some people may have a variety of medical issues that make the safe use of the GI tract difficult. Alternatively, their calorie and nutrient needs may not be met by the current level of functioning of their GI tract. That is when parenteral nutrition may be needed to help an individual remain hydrated and possibly to provide calories and other nutrients to allow for growth and development or maintenance of physical well-being and function.

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Explanation:

A new mother is diagnosed with depression. Which antidepressant may be
prescribed to this client?

Answers

Answer: Prozac (Fluoxetine).

Explanation:

This is a very safe product for people and has more natural serotonin and endorphins. Both of these natural chemicals in our body help make our depression ween away. The mother would have best luck in this medicine.

Brexanolone antidepressant may be prescribed to the new mother is diagnosed with depression.

What is Post Partum Depression?

Postpartum depression is a type of depression that occurs after giving birth and affects up to 15% of people. This will not only affect the person giving birth to the child but also the surrogate mother and adoptive parents.

This results in hormonal, physical, emotional, financial and social changes after having a baby which leads to postpartum depression. It can last up to a year after the baby is born which doesn't mean we should feel "right" in a year. Sometimes of antidepressant will given to these patients like Brexanolone.

Postpartum depression symptoms will include

Feeling sad and worthlessWorrying excessively or feeling on edge.Loss of interest in hobbiesChanges in appetite, or not eating anythingLoss of energy and motivation.

Thus, Brexanolone antidepressant may be prescribed to the new mother is diagnosed with depression.

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select all that apply consumers need to be skeptical of nutrition and health-related claims because __________the FDA cannot prevent the spread of published misinformation
nutrition misinformation can be spread through a variety of sources
promoters of worthless nutrition products are good marketers

Answers

Answer: the FDA cannot prevent the spread of published misinformation.
promoters of worthless nutrition products are good marketers.
nutrition misinformation can be spread through a variety of sources.

Explanation:

The two options that apply to the answer are:

1. nutrition misinformation can be spread through a variety of sources and

2. promoters of worthless nutrition products are good marketers.

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what is the main use of epinephrine ​

Answers

Answer

It's a type of injection used along with emergency medical treatment to treat life-threatening allergic reactions caused by insect bites or stings, foods, medications, latex, and other causes.

It helps stop an allergic reaction.

This is the act of carrying or transporting.

A. Assault

B. Cataclysm

C. Conveyance

D. Military operation

Answers

Hi...

«────── « ⋅ Your answer will be is ⋅ » ──────»

\(\bold{C. \: Conveyance.}\)

╰┈➤ Explanation :

Because this is a act of transporting. Cause- "Conveyance" means that the action or process of transporting someone or something from one place to another.

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during the evening after a thoracentesis, the client reports anxiety. which action would the nurse take first?

Answers

The consumer exhibits anxiety in the evening after a thoracentesis. Pay attention to the nurse's first move, which was listening for the client's breathing noises.

What fluid is taken out during a thoracentesis?

The thoracentesis procedure allows for the sampling of the pleural space, which encloses the lungs. A thin coating of pleural fluid is frequently all that is present in the area between the lungs and the chest wall.

Why do patients need thoracentesis?

Thoracentesis is used to treat pleural effusion, or extra fluid in the area between your lungs and chest wall. It helps with symptom relief and identifies probable fluid reasons so that your healthcare provider can provide you the right treatment.

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what does a domesticated animal depend on

Answers

A domesticated animal depends on a owner, or care taker for food, water, and basic necessities. if the owner is unable to provide this, it’s no point in having one. Their almost like children, very depends on the caretaker/owner

Membranes are sheets of tissue. Membranes cover surfaces, line body cavities, and surround organs. Membranes are classified as epithelial membranes or connective tissue membranes. The epithelial membranes include cutaneous (skin), mucous, and serous membranes. Explain how  water and other nutrients move through memebranes.​

Answers

Answer:

Water moves across a permeable barrier during osmosis to equalize the solute concentration on each side of the membrane. Nutrients, on the other hand, are absorbed across a barrier by a process known as diffusion

Explanation:

Osmosis is a process by which molecules of a solvent tend to pass through a semipermeable membrane from a less concentrated solution into a more concentrated one, thus equalizing the concentrations on each side of the membrane. Diffusion is the process by which atoms or molecules move from an area of high concentration to low concentration

What is the breakdown of sugar in the body for energy called

Answers

Cellular respiration

A 59-year-old inpatient presents for low velocity high amplitude for osteopathic treatment of the pelvis. What is the root operation? What is the ICD-10-PCS?


THIS IS NOT MY WORK

A 59-year-old inpatient presents for low velocity high amplitude for osteopathic treatment of the pelvis.

Answers

Answer:

• Root operation: The root operation for this case is "manipulation," which involves moving a body part to a new position or location without cutting or joining any body parts. In this case, the osteopathic treatment of the pelvis involves the manual manipulation of the bones and joints to improve their function.

• ICD-10-PCS code: The appropriate ICD-10-PCS code for this case would be 0SRD0ZZ, which represents the root operation of manipulation on the pelvis. The 0S qualifier indicates that the procedure is performed on the musculoskeletal system, while the RD character indicates the specific body part involved (pelvis). The final two characters (ZZ) are reserved for the device value, which is not applicable in this case.

• Reasoning for code selection: The root operation of "manipulation" accurately describes the procedure being performed, and the 0SRD0ZZ code accurately reflects the specific body part and procedure involved in this case. The ICD-10-PCS system is designed to provide a standardized method for describing medical procedures, and the use of these codes helps ensure accurate and consistent reporting of healthcare services across different providers and facilities.

write any two safety measures of eyes​

Answers

Answer:

1.We should always wash our eyes with clean water.

2.We should wear spects when we go to place like dumping site,construction site,e.t.c.

1. Always wear safety goggles when dealing with dangerous chemicals
2. Wear sunglasses to protect eyes from harmful UV rays

step 1: In 100 words write the purpose of utilizing appropriate
hygienic practices when caring for the hospitalized patient,
especially caring for surgical wounds and other wounds of the
skin.
step 2:

Answers

Utilizing appropriate hygienic practices when caring for hospitalized patients, especially for surgical wounds and other wounds of the skin, serves multiple purposes in preventing infections and promoting wound healing. Let's explore these purposes in more detail:

1. Infection prevention: Proper hygienic practices play a crucial role in preventing infections, as wounds are susceptible to colonization by bacteria and other pathogens. Adhering to strict hygiene protocols, such as proper hand hygiene, wearing gloves, and maintaining a clean environment, helps minimize the risk of introducing harmful microorganisms into the wound site.

2. Wound cleanliness: Keeping the wound area clean is essential for optimal wound healing. Regular cleaning and dressing changes help remove debris, excess exudate, and dead tissue from the wound, creating a favorable environment for healing

3. Prevention of cross-contamination: Hygienic practices are crucial in preventing cross-contamination, both from healthcare professionals to patients and between patients. Following proper hand hygiene, wearing personal protective equipment (PPE), and employing sterile techniques .

4. Support for the immune response: Maintaining hygiene helps support the body's natural immune response in fighting off infections. By reducing the microbial burden in the wound and its surroundings, hygienic practices create an environment that allows the immune system to function optimally. This supports the healing process and reduces the risk of complications.

5. Patient comfort and well-being
: Practicing appropriate hygiene when caring for wounds contributes to patient comfort and overall well-being.

Overall, utilizing appropriate hygienic practices when caring for hospitalized patients, particularly when managing surgical wounds and other skin wounds, is essential for infection prevention, promoting wound healing, reducing complications, and ensuring patient comfort and well-being.

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: Which stabilizing system of the spine receives and transmits information to manage spinal stability? Passive Neural Control None of these Active

Answers

The stabilizing system of the spine that receives and transmits information to manage spinal stability is the active stabilizing system.

This system includes the muscles and tendons surrounding the spine that actively work to maintain stability and respond to changes in movement and posture. The passive stabilizing system includes structures such as ligaments and bones, which provide structural support but do not actively contribute to spinal stability.

The neural control system plays a role in coordinating and regulating the activity of the active stabilizing system.

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Mrs. Carr needs to have additional testing done before receiving a diagnosis.
Her general doctor explains that he will need to send all of her medical
records over to her newly assigned specialist. Mrs. Carr does not want all of
her information shared, but instead requests that only information related to
her disorder be shared. Is Mrs. Carr within her rights to request that only
certain information be shared?

Answers

I think she does not have the right because something in the past could be effecting her now

The nurse is assisting in the care of a client with myasthenia gravis who is receiving pyridostigmine. Which medication should the nurse plan to have readily available should the client develop cholinergic crisis because of excessive medication dosage

Answers

Pyridostigmine works by slowing the breakdown of acetylcholine when it is released from nerve endings. Pyridostigmine is the most commonly prescribed anticholinesterase.

What is Myasthenia gravis?

Myasthenia gravis is a condition where your muscles become easily tired and weak. There is a fault in the way nerve messages are passed from your nerves to your muscles. As a consequence, your muscles are not stimulated properly, so do not tighten (contract) well. The muscles around the eyes are commonly affected first. Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease. This means that the fault is due to a problem with your immune system. Your immune system (which normally protects your body from infections) mistakenly attacks itself.Your brain normally sends messages down nerves to the muscles it wants to contract. The nerve endings then release a chemical called acetylcholine. Acetylcholine quickly attaches to small areas on your muscles, called receptors, and this triggers your muscles to contract. In most people with myasthenia gravis, the immune system blocks or damages these acetylcholine receptors. The acetylcholine cannot then attach to the receptor and so the muscle is less able to tighten.Pyridostigmine works by slowing the breakdown of acetylcholine when it is released from nerve endings. This means that there is more acetylcholine available to attach to the muscle receptors, and this improves the strength of your muscles. Pyridostigmine is the most commonly prescribed anticholinesterase.

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What Is the Z-Track Injection Method?

Answers

Answer:

The Z-track injection method is a technique used to administer intramuscular (IM) injections. The technique involves pulling the skin away from the muscle before inserting the needle and then pushing the plunger of the syringe, this is done to prevent the medication from leaking back out of the injection site and potentially into the subcutaneous tissue. The "Z-track" refers to the path the needle takes when it is inserted and withdrawn, which is designed to create a "track" or path that is less likely to allow the medication to leak out of the muscle and into the surrounding tissue. This method is used primarily for medications that can be irritating to the surrounding tissue, such as certain antibiotics and antipsychotics.

An IM injection technique known as the Z-track method is utilized to stop medicine tracking (leakage) into to the epidermis (underneath the skin).

The Z track method: what is it and how is it used?

For any and all I.M. injection in adults, YOU MUST USE THE Z-TRACK METHOD. This approach reduces skin irritation, helps seal the medication in the muscles, and avoids drug leaking into the epidermis by creating a zigzag pattern that plugs the needle track.

Where are Z track injections administered?

The Z-track technique is frequently applied in a medical context and entails moving the skin and tissue away from the injection area before placing the needle. The tissue is freed after the needle has been taken out. As a result, the needle path takes on a zag shape or Z track.

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How did relations among Europe's great classes change from the first half to the second half of the 19th century

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The relations among Europe's great classes underwent significant transformations in the second half of the 19th century. The rise of the working class, the growth of the middle class, political reforms, social legislation, and the spread of socialist ideologies all contributed to a reconfiguration of power dynamics and class relations.

During the first half of the 19th century in Europe, social and class relations were predominantly characterized by a rigid hierarchical structure and limited social mobility. The great classes of society, such as the nobility, bourgeoisie (middle class), and working class, had distinct roles and were separated by significant social and economic barriers.

However, significant changes took place during the second half of the 19th century, leading to shifts in the relations among Europe's great classes. These changes were primarily driven by industrialization, urbanization, political movements, and societal transformations. Here are some key developments:

1. Industrialization and the rise of the working class: The Industrial Revolution brought about a massive shift from agrarian economies to industrial economies. This led to the emergence of a working class consisting of factory workers and urban laborers. The working class, with its collective interests and grievances, began organizing labor unions and demanding improved working conditions, better wages, and political representation.

2. Growth of the middle class: Industrialization also led to the growth of the middle class, primarily composed of entrepreneurs, professionals, and skilled workers. The middle class expanded its economic influence and social status, challenging the dominance of the nobility and aristocracy.

3. Political reforms and revolutions: The 19th century witnessed various political movements and revolutions across Europe, advocating for democratic reforms and greater political participation. These movements sought to dismantle aristocratic privileges and establish more egalitarian societies. The rise of constitutional monarchies and the granting of suffrage to broader sections of society helped to reshape power dynamics.

4. Social reforms and labor legislation: As the working class gained visibility and organized, social reforms and labor legislation were introduced to address the harsh conditions and inequalities they faced. Governments implemented laws to regulate working hours, improve workplace safety, and provide social protections. These changes aimed to mitigate class tensions and promote social cohesion.

5. Rise of socialist and communist ideologies: The second half of the 19th century saw the emergence of socialist and communist ideologies, advocating for the abolition of class distinctions and the establishment of a classless society. These ideologies gained popularity among working-class movements and intellectuals, further fueling class consciousness and calls for societal change.

The rigid hierarchical structure of the first half of the century began to give way to greater social mobility, increased demands for equality, and the recognition of worker rights.

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The nurse is reviewing discharge instructions for a mother whose lactose intolerant school-aged child was recently found to have celiac disease. Which statements by the mother demonstrate understanding of the child's nutritional needs? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.
- "I'll try to provide meals that are lower in fats and higher in carbohydrates."
- "She loves raw carrots for snacking, so I'll have to avoid those when the disease is worse."
- "I'll be sure to look at the labels more closely from now on—we need to avoid hydrolyzed vegetable protein."

Answers

The nurse is reviewing discharge instructions for a mother who is lactose intolerant, so the statements supporting them are the last option. "I'll be sure to look at the labels more closely from now on—we need to avoid hydrolyzed vegetable protein."

What is the significance of celiac disease in humans?

It is a disorder in which the body cannot tolerate gluten, which is abundant in wheat and barley, so people with this condition should adhere to a strict gluten-free diet to manage their symptoms and prevent small intestine damage. Gluten consumption causes abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhea in these people.

Hence, the nurse is reviewing discharge instructions for a mother who is lactose intolerant, so the statements supporting them are the last option. "I'll be sure to look at the labels more closely from now on—we need to avoid hydrolyzed vegetable protein."

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what are some of the purposes of a post-mortem? check all that apply.
a. To learn from and adapt processes for higher efficiency
b. to understand the cause of mistakes and how to prevent them
c. to foster a culture where it's ok to make mistakes

Answers

The purpose of post-moterm is to understand the cause of mistakes and how to prevent them.

A post-moterm, which is also called an autopsy  an examination of the body done after the passing of the individual.

When the post-moterm of a body is done, it gives us a brief understanding of what went wrong in the body and what was the cause of the death or how did the death caused.

By learning about how and what happened, we can understand the causes of the mistakes and  we can prevent them in future.

A major experiments and crucial information is obtained from the post-moterm report of the body. This useful information is used in future to make medicines and surgical methods.

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Blood vessels (capillaries) that selectively let certain substances enter brain tissue and keep others out.

-
Type of glial (neuroglial) cell that transports water and salts from capillaries.

-
Collection of spinal nerves below the end of the spinal cord.

A.
Neurotransmitter chemical released at the ends of nerve cells.

-
Microscopic fiber that carries the nervous impulse along a nerve cell.

-
Carries messages toward the brain and spinal cord from receptors.

-
Lower portion of the brain that connects the cerebrum with the spinal cord.

-
Part of a nerve cell that contains the nucleus.

-
Middle layer of the meninges.

-
Contains nerves that control involuntary body functions or muscles, glands, and internal organs.
A. Acetylcholine
B. afferent nerve
C. arachnoid membrane
D. astrocyte
E. autonomic nervous system
F. axon
G. blood-brain barrier
H. brainstem
I. cauda equina
J. cell body

Answers

A would be your answer hope this helped

The blood vessels control entry into the brain is blood-brain barrier (G), the glial cell is the astrocyte (D), the collection of spinal nerves is cauda equina (I), Neurotransmitter is Acetylcholine (A), Microscopic fiber is axon (F), carries messages on an afferent nerve (B), connects the cerebrum and brainstem (H), is part of a nerve cell body (J), middle layer is the arachnoid membrane (C), and controls the involuntary body is the autonomic nervous system (E).

What is the blood brain barrier?

This is a specialized system of blood vessels that helps to protect the brain by selectively allowing certain substances, such as oxygen and nutrients, to enter while keeping others, such as toxins and pathogens, out, and the blood-brain barrier is made up of tightly packed cells and specialized transport proteins that control what can pass from the bloodstream into the brain tissue.

Hence, blood vessels control entry into the brain is blood-brain barrier (G), the type of glial cell is the astrocyte (D), the collection of spinal nerves is the cauda equina (I), Neurotransmitter is Acetylcholine (A), Microscopic fiber is an axon (F), carries messages on an afferent nerve (B), connects the cerebrum and brainstem (H), is part of a nerve cell body (J), middle layer is the arachnoid membrane (C), and controls the involuntary body is the autonomic nervous system (E).

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birth usually occurs approximately _____ weeks after conception.

Answers

The term that should be included in the answer for the question “birth usually occurs approximately _____ weeks after conception” is 38.

Birth usually occurs approximately 38 weeks after conception.

What is the gestational period?

The time between conception and birth is known as the gestational period. In human beings, the gestational period lasts approximately 38 weeks or nine months.

Because gestational age is calculated from the first day of the last menstrual period, conception typically occurs approximately two weeks later.

This implies that the gestational age is estimated to be two weeks less than the fetal age.

A full-term pregnancy is defined as one that lasts 37-42 weeks.

If a woman delivers a baby before 37 weeks of gestational age, it is considered a preterm or premature birth.

If a woman delivers a baby after 42 weeks of gestational age, it is known as a post-term pregnancy.

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Birth usually occurs approximately 38 weeks after conception.

From the date of the last menstrual period, a pregnancy normally lasts 280 days, or 40 weeks.

Since fertilization usually occurs around two weeks after the start of the last period, fetal age is roughly 38 weeks by the time of birth, or 40 weeks from the last menstrual period.

During pregnancy, doctors count fetal age in weeks, starting from the first day of the woman's last menstrual period, instead of counting from the day of conception.

This is due to the fact that the precise date of conception is difficult to establish.

Pregnancy is typically divided into three trimesters, with each trimester lasting around 12 to 14 weeks.

There are a variety of things that can influence the length of pregnancy.

For example, women who give birth to multiple children usually have shorter pregnancies, whereas women who are older, first-time mothers may have longer pregnancies.

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Whats another word for ibuprofen?

Answers

Answer:

For me

Explanation:

I think another name it word for ibuprofen is Advil

two year old Donald has below average intelligence, had a heart defect, and has facial deformities. Based on this description, a physician would likely hypothesize that donald's mother....

Answers

Two-year-old Donald has below-average intelligence, a heart defect, and facial deformities - based on this description a physician would likely hypothesize that Donald's mother drank alcohol during her pregnancy

In the given case, a doctor would speculate that Donald's mother drank alcohol when she was expecting him, thereby exacerbating his mental impairment, heart condition, and facial malformations. Foetal alcohol syndrome or a closely similar condition known as alcohol-related neurodevelopmental disorder may be suspected in the presence of intellectual disability, a heart problem, and facial deformities.

These issues arise when a pregnant woman drinks alcohol, which can result in issues with the development of the foetus and abnormal birth outcomes. Growth deficiencies, intellectual disabilities, heart defects, facial abnormalities such as a smooth philtrum, thin upper lip, and small eye openings, and other neurodevelopmental impairments are among the physical, mental, and behavioral abnormalities that make up Foetal Alcohol Syndrome.

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If a woman with vaginal bleeding reports syncope, the EMT should assume that she: Group of answer choices

Answers

If a woman with vaginal bleeding reports syncope (fainting), the EMT should assume that she is experiencing significant blood loss and is in a potentially life-threatening condition.

The EMT should quickly assess the patient's vital signs, including heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturation, and provide appropriate interventions, such as oxygen therapy and intravenous fluids, as necessary. The EMT should also perform a thorough physical examination to identify the source and extent of the bleeding and provide appropriate care based on the findings.

It is important for the EMT to maintain a high level of suspicion and provide prompt and aggressive treatment to prevent further deterioration of the patient's condition.

Mr. Rodriguez is a 50-year-old male with diabetes. He has been diagnosed with hypertension and congestive heart failure and is prescribed carvedilol (Coreg) 6.25 mg orally b.i.d.

a. What are the key teaching points for Mr. Rodriguez about carvedilol?
b. Explain why carvedilol is better than guanadrel to treat Mr. Rodriguez for his combined hypertension and congestive heart failure.

Answers

Answer:

He has been diagnosed with hypertension and congestive heart failure and is prescribed carvedilol ( Coreg) 6.25 mg orally b.i.d. a. What are the key teaching points for Mr. Rodriguez about carvedilol? b. Explain why carvedilol is prefered drug to treat Mr. Rodriguez for his combined hypertension and congestive heart failure.

Explanation:

1. Conduct research to find four different food sources that could be part of a high-protein diet. For each food source, indicate the major amino acids and other nutritional benefits that are present, then indicate the recommended minimum daily intake of protein for adults. Cite the sources of your research. BBoldIItalicsUUnderlineBulleted listNumbered listSuperscriptSubscript

Answers

Answer:

1. Tuna (Protein content: 32g per 100g)

2. Breast chicken (Protein content: 31g per 100g)

3. Cheddar (Protein content: 25g per 100g)

4. Walnuts (Protein content: 16g per 100g)

Explanation:

1. Tuna. Tuna is rich in essential amino acids (i.e., lysine, methionine, cysteine, threonine and tryptophan), and omega-3 fatty acids, which helps to prevent cardiovascular diseases. Moreover, this food is an important source of vitamin A,  B Group vitamins (i.e., thiamin, riboflavin, niacin) and minerals (i.e., calcium, phosphorus, iron, etc.) (Fatimah et al. 2019).

2. Chicken breast. Chicken breast is low in fat and an excellent source of protein, vitamins (vitamin B6, niacin), and many essential minerals (selenium, phosphorus,iron, calcium). Chicken is a rich source of methionine, the precursor of homocysteine (Bansal and Joshi 2017).

3. Cheddar. Cheddar cheese is produced from milk, which has a good content of calcium that helps to prevent osteoporosis and vitamin K. This food has significant quantities of essential amino acids (e.g., lysine, threonine, and tryptophan) (Gueimonde et al. 2019).  

4. Walnuts. Walnuts are rich in fats (lipids), especially omega-3 fatty acids, which are required for normal brain function (Haider, Saida, et al. 2011). Moreover, walnuts have a high content of arginine amino acid.

The patients treated with the new drug the duration of the outbreak was 1week, instead that the duration of the patients treated with the placebo was 2 week= what happens to prevelance?

Answers

In your scenario, when patients are treated with the new drug, the duration of the outbreak is 1 week, whereas, for patients treated with the placebo, the duration is 2 weeks. The prevalence of the outbreak would likely decrease.

This is because the new drug shortens the outbreak duration, reducing the number of infected individuals over time and leading to a lower prevalence of the outbreak.However, It is difficult to determine the impact on prevalence without additional information. Prevalence refers to the proportion of individuals in a population with a specific disease or condition at a given point in time. The duration of the outbreak in the two groups may impact prevalence, but other factors such as the number of individuals affected and the total population size would also need to be considered. Additionally, the effectiveness of the new drug in preventing the spread of the outbreak would also impact prevalence.A placebo is a substance given for a dummy treatment (not real) that does not have any therapeutic value.

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Which of the following is a strategy to use to help an individual de-escalate from peak behaviors?

Get close to them and tell them to calm down quietly.
Keep your distance and loudly tell them to calm down.
Give them a task to complete immediately after peak behavior.
Allow time for the individual to become calmer.

Answers

Give the person some time to calm down. A person should use this technique to de-escalate from peak behaviours.

Which of the following is the most moral thing to do when you don't know how to help a client in trouble?

When there is an emergency and the employee is unfamiliar with the client, appeasement is the best course of action.

Which behaviour management techniques were successful in encouraging students and controlling their behaviour?

Rewarding good behaviour, including finishing homework, paying attention in class, and being considerate of others, is another way teachers can control their students' behaviour. Youngsters respond favourably to praise and learn to behave in a similar manner.

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