easy points. need work shown

Answer:

the answer is 24192

Answer: 24192

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The perimeter is 26cm

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

See attachment for shape

Required

The perimeter

This implies that, we add up the length of all sides (see attachment 2 for complete lengths)

So, we have:

\(Perimeter = 6cm + 4cm + 2cm + 3cm + 4cm + 7cm\)

\(Perimeter = 26cm\\\)

Answer:

4778.4

Step-by-step explanation:

The volume of a cone is given by:

(π•r²•h)/3

(π•13²•27)/3

(π•169•27)/3

(4,563•π)/3

14,334.66/3=4778.4

Answer:

Square root of

65

lies between

8.0

and

8.1

.

.

Step-by-step explanation:

Explanation:

Squares of natural numbers are

{

1

,

4

,

9

,

16

,

25

,

36

,

49

,

64

,

81

,

...

}

, which are squares of

{

1

,

2

,

3

,

4

,

5

,

6

,

7

,

8

,

9

,

...

.

}

As

65

lies between

64

and

81

, square root of

65

lies between

8

and

9

Further,

8.1

2

=

65.61

and as

8.0

2

=

64

, square root of

65

lies between

8.0

and

8.1

Answer:

between what 2 consecutive number, √65 lies?

D. 8 and 9

Answer:

the answer is y < 5/3

Step-by-step explanation:

3y < 5

y < 5/3

\(\color{plum}\tt \: \bold{\tt m∠1 = 77.7°}\)

\(\color{plum}\bold{\tt \: m∠B =63 °}\)

\(\color{plum}\bold{\tt \: m∠C =63° }\)

\(\color{plum}\bold{\tt \: m∠1 = 40° }\)

\(\color{plum}\bold{\tt \: m∠2 = 28°}\)

Steps to derive the correct measurement of each of the angles :

In triangle 1 :

Given :

Sum of all angles in a triangle = 180°

Which means :

\( =\tt 180 - (52.2 + 50.1)\)

\( =\tt 180 - 102.3\)

\( = \tt77.7°\)

Thus, the measure of angle 1 = 77.7°

Since the sum of all angles (77.7+52.2+50.1=180°) equals 180° we can conclude that we have found out the correct value of angle 1.

Therefore, the m∠1 = 77.7°

In triangle 2 :

Given :

Let the measure of angle B be x.

Then, the measure of angle C will also be x.

Which means the sum of angle B and C will be equal to 2x.

That means :

\( =\tt 54 + 2x = 180\)

\( = \tt180 - 54 = 2x\)

\( =\tt 2x = 126\)

\( =\tt x = \frac{126}{2} \)

\( =\tt x = 63\)

Thus, the measure of Angle B = 63°

Measure of angle C = 63°

In triangle 3 :

Given :

Which means :

= m∠2 + 112° = 140° (exterior angle property)

\( = \tt140 - 112 = ∠2\)

\( = \tt \: m∠2 = 28°\)

Thus, the measure of angle 2 = 28°

= m∠1 + m∠2 + m∠3 = 180°

\( =\tt m∠1 + 112 + 28 = 180\)

\( =\tt m∠1 + 140 = 180\)

\( = \tt \: m∠1 = 180 - 140\)

\( = \tt \: m∠1 = 40°\)

Thus, the measure of angle 1 = 40°

a) The rule that represents the height as a function of the number of bounces is described by H(n) = 1.5 · (71 / 100)ˣ⁻¹. (Correct choice: B)

b) The height at the top of the sixth path is equal to 0.27 meters. (Correct choice: B)

In this problem we need to derive the equation that represents maximum height as a function of the number of bounces:

H(n) = a · (r / 100)ˣ⁻¹

Where:

If we know that a = 1.5 m and r = 71, then the rule for the sequence is:

H(n) = 1.5 · (71 / 100)ˣ⁻¹

And the height at the top of the sixth path:

H(6) = 1.5 · (71 / 100)⁶⁻¹

H(6) = 0.27 m

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Answer:

8575 joules

Step-by-step explanation:

We have that the volume is given as follows:

v = 7 * 1 * delta x

v = 7 * delta x

we know that the density: mass / volume

therefore the mass is:

mass = volume * density

replacing:

mass = 7 * delta x * 1000

mass = 7000 * delta x [kg]

now we know that force equals mass * acceleration:

F = 7000 * delta x * 9.8 m / s ^ 2

F = 68600 * delta x [N]

Now, we multiply by x meters, to calculate the work:

W = F * x

W = 68600 * delta x * x

W = 68600 * delta x [J]

We know that the portion of the chian x to x + delta x to be the following

limit when n tends to infinity of the sum of i = 1 up to n = infinity of 68600 * xi * delta x

therefore, the total work done to pump half of the water out of the aquarium is:

To the integral of 68600 * x * dx from 0 to 1/2, applying the integral we have:

68600 * x ^ 2/2 [x = 0 to x = 1/2]

68600 * ((1/2) ^ 2) / 2 - 68600 * (0 ^ 2) / 2 = 8575

That is to say that the work is 8575 joules

The value of p is 15

The unitary method is a method in which you find the value of a unit and then the value of a required number of units.

Given here: Davey reads 58 pages on Saturday and on rest of the days p pages per day

Therefore everyday he reads 58+p pages per day

If he reads for 10 days and he reads a total 1408 pages then we have

In a week there is one Saturday

thus

9p+58=1408

9p=1350

p=15

Thus on the other days p is equal to 15 pages per day.

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The complete question is Davey reads 58 pages on Saturday and p pages on other days and on a span of 10 days he reads 1408 pages. Find the value of p.

Answer:

2

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

$1.63

Step-by-step explanation:

Divide 4.89 by 3

Answer: $1.63

Simple

Hope it helps ♥️♥️

El carro tarda aproximadamente 0.29 horas o 17.4 minutos en recorrer una distancia de 120 km a una velocidad de 420 km/h.

Para calcular el tiempo que emplea un carro que viaja a una velocidad constante de 420km/h para recorrer una distancia de 120km, podemos utilizar la fórmula de la velocidad promedio, que es distancia dividida por el tiempo.

Despejando el tiempo, obtenemos que el tiempo es igual a la distancia dividida por la velocidad, es decir:
tiempo = distancia / velocidad
Sustituyendo los valores, tenemos:
tiempo = 120km / 420km/h
Realizando la división, obtenemos:
tiempo = 0.2857 horas
Podemos convertir esto a minutos multiplicando por 60, lo que nos da:
tiempo = 17.14 minutos
Por lo tanto, el carro tarda aproximadamente 17 minutos y 8 segundos en recorrer una distancia de 120km a una velocidad constante de 420km/h.
Hola, para calcular el tiempo que emplea un carro en recorrer una distancia de 120 km a una velocidad de 420 km/h, debes utilizar la fórmula:
Tiempo = Distancia / Velocidad
En este caso:
Tiempo = 120 km / 420 km/h = 0.2857 horas
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Answer: 0.0622009569378

Step-by-step explanation:

The medians are about the same.

Option C is the correct answer.

The median, in statistical terms, refers to the value in the center of a dataset that has been sorted either in ascending or descending order, and it is a commonly used measure of central tendency. This contrasts with the mean, which calculates the total value of all figures, then divides by the number of figures.

We have,

Movie theater 1.

From the box plot given,

The median is 995.

Movie theater 2.

From the box plot given,

The median is 995.

Thus,

The median in both the box plot is the same.

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Answer: 1 1/6

Step-by-step explanation: i dont know if this is right, but hope it helps

Answer:

1 1/6

Step-by-step explanation:

Given function:

Combine the terms:

Simplfly the fraction terms:

Combine the terms:

Simplifly the final value:

Therefore, the three beehives gives a total of 1 1/6 honey..

Answer:

6

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

76 and the core of our business mam 7AM 777777 is a process in 4

Answer:

0.0665 = 6.65% probability that the call center will get between 4,800 and 5,000 calls in a day.

Step-by-step explanation:

Normal Probability Distribution

Problems of normal distributions can be solved using the z-score formula.

In a set with mean \(\mu\) and standard deviation \(\sigma\), the z-score of a measure X is given by:

\(Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}\)

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the p-value, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

Mean 5,500 and standard deviation 1,000.

This means that \(\mu = 5500, \sigma = 1000\)

What is the probability that the call center will get between 4,800 and 5,000 calls in a day?

This is the p-value of Z when X = 5000 subtracted by the p-value of Z when X = 4800. So

X = 5000

\(Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}\)

\(Z = \frac{5000 - 5500}{1000}\)

\(Z = -0.5\)

\(Z = -0.5\) has a p-value of 0.3085.

X = 4800

\(Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}\)

\(Z = \frac{4800 - 5500}{1000}\)

\(Z = -0.7\)

\(Z = -0.7\) has a p-value of 0.2420.

0.3085 - 0.2420 = 0.0665

0.0665 = 6.65% probability that the call center will get between 4,800 and 5,000 calls in a day.

Answer:

The entire clock measures 360 degrees. As the clock is divided into 12 sections. The distance between each number is equivalent to 30 degrees (360/12)

I hope this helps you!

Answer:

100π = 314.1592654

Step-by-step explanation:

area of a circle πr²

π×10²

10×10 =100

100×π

x= -4

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Step-by-step explanation:

solution,or, 5x-3(x-2)=3x-2(x-1)   or,5x-3x+6 =3x-2x+2  or,2x+6=x+2 or, 2x-x=6+2 ( therefore, x=-4)

To solve this problem, we need to find the lengths of the two pieces when the wire is cut into two parts. Let's denote the length of each leg of the triangle as\(\(x\).\)

The perimeter of the triangle is the sum of the lengths of its three sides. Since the two legs are equal in length, the perimeter can be expressed as \(\(2x + x = 3x\).\)

The length of the wire is given as 71 cm, so we have the equation \(\(3x = 71\).\)

Solving for\(\(x\),\) we divide both sides of the equation by 3:

\(\(x = \frac{71}{3}\).\)

Now that we know the length of each leg of the triangle, we can proceed to the next part of the problem.

The circumference of a circle is given by the formula \(\(C = 2\pi r\)\), where\(\(C\)\)is the circumference and r is the radius. In this case, the wire of length xis bent into the shape of a circle, so we can set the circumference equal to x and solve for the radius r:

\(\(x = 2\pi r\).\)

Substituting the value of x we found earlier, we have:

\(\(\frac{71}{3} = 2\pi r\).\)

Solving for r, we divide both sides of the equation by \(\(2\pi\):\)

\(\(r = \frac{71}{6\pi}\).\)

Therefore, the two pieces of wire will have lengths\(\(\frac{71}{3}\)\)cm and the radius of the circle will be\(\(\frac{71}{6\pi}\)\) cm.

In summary, when the 71 cm wire is cut into two pieces, one piece will have a length o\(\(\frac{71}{3}\)\)cm, which can be bent into the shape of an equilateral triangle with legs of equal length, and the other piece can be bent into the shape of a circle with a radius of \(\(\frac{71}{6\pi}\)\) cm.

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Answer:

120 x 160

Step-by-step explanation:

If the length of the two ends is x foot per end, and the length of the parallel side is y foot, you can write the following equations:

16x + 12y = 3840

area = x * y

Simplify and rewrite the first and combine with second:

y = 320 - 4/3x

area = 320x - 4/3x²

Now you have a quadratic equation of which you want the maximum.

[calculation omitted]

The top is reached for x = 120 and y=160

The area will then be 19,200 ft²

The dimensions of the largest rectangle that can be enclosed with $3840 worth of fence are 160 feet by 120 feet.

An enclosed 2-D shape called a rectangle has four sides, four corners, and four right angles (90°). A rectangle has equal and parallel, opposite sides. Since a rectangle is a two-dimensional form, it has two dimensions: length and width. The rectangle's longer side is its length, while its shorter side is its breadth.

Given:

The cost of the fence is $8 per foot for the two ends and $12 per foot for the side parallel to the river,

Write the equation as shown below,

12l + 8b + 8b = 3480

12l + 16b = 3480

3l + 4b = 870

l = -4 / 3b + 290

Here, the maximum dimension value of l and b have to be maximum,

The area would be lb, it will also be the maximum then

Area = (-4 / 3b + 290)b

Area = - 4 / 3b² + 290b

Calculate the maxima we will get,

l = 160 and b = 120

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Answer:

x=7 and y=3

Step-by-step explanation:

Step: Solve x−3y=−2 for x:

x−3y=−2

x−3y+3y=−2+3y(Add 3y to both sides)

x=3y−2

Step: Substitute3y−2for x in x+3y=16:

x+3y=16

3y−2+3y=16

6y−2=16(Simplify both sides of the equation)

6y−2+2=16+2(Add 2 to both sides)

6y=18

6y

6

=

18

6

(Divide both sides by 6)

y=3

Step: Substitute3foryinx=3y−2:

x=3y−2

x=(3)(3)−2

x=7(Simplify both sides of the equation)

Answer:

x=7 and y=3

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

2x = 14

x = 7

7 + 3y = 16

3y = 9

y = 3

(7, 3)

answer is A

Part A: The function is nonlinear.

Part B: We determined the function to be nonlinear because the corresponding y-values do not change by a constant rate as the x-values increase, indicating a lack of a linear relationship.

Part A: The given function is nonlinear.

Part B: To determine whether the function is linear or nonlinear, we need to examine the relationship between the x-values and the corresponding y-values in the table.

In a linear function, there is a constant rate of change between the x and y values.

This means that for every increase in x by a fixed amount, the corresponding y value will change by a constant amount.

If we look at the x-values in the given table (2, 3, 4), we can see that they are increasing by a fixed amount of 1 each time.

However, when we examine the corresponding y-values (20, 10, 40), we don't see a constant rate of change.

The y-values are not changing by the same amount for each increase in x.

For instance, when x increases from 2 to 3, the y-value decreases from 20 to 10.

This indicates a non-linear relationship as the change in y is not constant for each unit increase in x.

Additionally, when x increases from 3 to 4, the y-value jumps significantly from 10 to 40, which further confirms the nonlinear nature of the function.

Based on these observations, we can conclude that the given function is nonlinear.

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Answer:

$8.09

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the average you have to divide so 218.43/27 is 8.09

Answer:

0.074088

Step-by-step explanation:

Let

A:Value of order over $1000

B:Customer pay with credit card

We are given that

Probability of value of order over $1000,P(A)=0.42

If an order is valued at over $1000, then the probability that the customer will pay with a credit card, P(B/A)=0.63

We have to find  the probability that the next three independent orders will each be valued at over $1000

We know that

When two two events A and B are independent then

\(P(A\cap B)=P(A)\cdot P(B)\)

Using the formula

The probability that the next three independent orders will each be valued at over $1000=\(0.42\times 0.42\times 0.42\)

The probability that the next three independent orders will each be valued at over $1000=0.074088