Effective use of antibiotics includes:
- Reassessing for continued need at 72 hours after initiation of treatment
- Stopping antibiotics earlier, i.e., after 5 days instead of the usual 10-day course
- Getting blood cultures right after a broad-spectrum antibiotic is started
- Using a specific antibiotic to target the identified infectious agent
Answers
Using a specific antibiotic to target the identified infectious agent. Using antibiotics for the identified organism effectively treats the infection and reduces the risk of antibiotic resistance. Always reassess continued need at 48 hours after initiation of treatment. Blood cultures should be obtained prior to initiation of antibiotics if possible.
A specific class of antimicrobial agent that fights germs is an antibiotic. Antibiotic drugs are often employed in the treatment and prevention of bacterial infections because they are the most effective type of antibacterial agent for doing so. You can get rid of bacteria or stop their growth. Only a few antibiotics also have antiprotozoal properties. Antiviral drugs, often known as antivirals, are recommended pharmaceuticals that prevent the spread of viruses rather than using antibiotic characteristics to treat specific viruses like the flu or the common cold. Fungi are also resistant to antifungal treatments, which limit the spread of fungus.
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Related Questions
a postoperative client with deep-vein thrombosis is at risk for pulmonary embolism. for which characteristic sign/symptom of this complication does the nurse monitor the client? group of answer choices
Answers
The nurse monitors the postoperative client with deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) for the characteristic sign/symptom of pulmonary embolism (PE), which is increased heart rate and respiratory rate, option A is correct.
Pulmonary embolism occurs when a blood clot from the deep veins, usually in the legs, travels to the lungs, obstructing blood flow. This obstruction leads to impaired oxygenation and increased strain on the heart and lungs. As a compensatory mechanism, the body responds by increasing the heart rate and respiratory rate in an attempt to improve oxygenation.
Therefore, monitoring the client's heart rate and respiratory rate is crucial in assessing for the development of pulmonary embolism. Elevated blood pressure may or may not be present, and decreased body temperature is not typically associated with pulmonary embolism. While oxygen saturation may be affected, it is not the characteristic sign/symptom the nurse specifically monitors for in this situation, option A is correct.
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The correct question is:
A postoperative client with deep-vein thrombosis is at risk for pulmonary embolism. For which characteristic sign/symptom of this complication does the nurse monitor the client?
A. Increased heart rate and respiratory rate
B. Elevated blood pressure
C. Decreased body temperature
D. Increased oxygen saturation
4. A running joke among viewers of the medical drama House was that "it's never lupus."
even though it frequently came up as a possible diagnosis tclthe patient-of-the-week's
symptoms. Why is lupus sometimes a difficult disease to diagnose but would often
come up as doctors discuss a patient's symptoms? What is the treatment regimen for
Lupus?
Answers
Answer: It has many symptoms that are often mistaken for symptoms of other diseases. The treatment for lupus is Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.
Sometimes lupus is hard to diagnose because it has many symptoms of other diseases and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are given to treat lupus.
What is lupus?An ongoing autoimmune condition called lupus causes the immune system to assault healthy tissue. It might result in a wide variety of bodily symptoms. It can be controlled with medical care and natural therapies.
In autoimmune diseases like lupus, the immune system is unable to distinguish between foreign chemicals, or antigens, and healthy tissue. The body mistakenly perceives itself as foreign.
The immune system then targets antibodies against both the antigens and the healthy tissue. As a result, there is tissue damage, discomfort, and edema. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are given to treat lupus.
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Tamera is a medical assistant working for Dr. Huang, Dr. Huang has asked Tamera to perform several tasks. Which task is least likely to require critical thinking?
Answers
Which of the following could be reasonably concluded if a fecal pellet is expelled from a sow's vagina during farrowing?
The sow may have a stillborn piglet in her uterus.
The first piglet in the litter is being birthed backward.
The farrowing process has come to a conclusion.
The sow is about to expel her placenta.
Answers
Answer: The first piglet in the litter is being birthed backward.
Explanation:
Farrowing is a term that simply has to do with the action by which pigs give birth. Another term for farrowing is parturition.
As farrowing approaches, it should be noted that the the vulva and the vagina will enlarge which leads to the opening into the womb. When a fecal pellet is expelled from a sow's vagina during farrowing, the first piglet in the litter is being birthed backward.
During shift report, the nurse states that a patient is receiving an oxytocin drip at 6 milliunits/min. The oxytocin concentration is 30 units in 1,000 mL of lactated Ringer’s solution. The IV pump should be set for how many milliliters per hour? _________mL/h
Answers
Answer:
... i think it should be 15
Explanation:
Identifying Sender and Receiver
Identify the sender and receiver in the following situations.
A pharmacy technician notices a patient frown when she explains that the patient's id out of date. The pharmacy technician is the ________ and the patient is the ________ . A pharmacy technician writes a patient's drug allergies in the patient's profile for the pharmacist to view. The _______________ is the sender, and the ___________ is the receiver.
Answers
Answer:
1. Receiver
2. Sender
3. Pharmacy technician
4. Pharmacist
Explanation:
I calculated it logically
which action can best limit the transmission of pathogens by indirect contact
Answers
Answer: To wash your hands regularly with soap and water.
Explanation: Indirect transmission occurs when one person touches something, like this doorknob, leaving behind germs. When another person touches it, they pick up some of the germs.
Answer:
Washing vegetables
Explanation:
What is the difference between a CBC and a CMP?
A. A CBC checks some components of major cells in the patients blood while a CMP test several different substances mainly metabolism, sugar, and kidney/liver health.
B. A CMP is for heart health testing the function of the arteries and valves while a CBC is a blood test for contents of blood.
C. There is no difference between a CBC and a CMP.
D. A CBC tests the functions of the arteries and valves while a CMP tests the function of different parts of the brain.
Answers
A CMP is a more targeted test that evaluates sugar, metabolism,kidney, liver
A CBC is mainly the cells in the blood
How many days must an individual wait before they can donate whole blood again
Answers
Answer:
You must wait at least eight weeks (56 days) between donations of whole blood.
instruments used to invade nonsterile body sites must go through:
High-level cleaning High-level disinfection Sterilization Decontamination
Answers
Instruments used to invade nonsterile body sites must go through a process of decontamination, high-level cleaning, high-level disinfection, and sterilization.
Decontamination involves removing any visible contaminants from the instrument. High-level cleaning is the process of removing any remaining organic material from the instrument's surface, which is crucial in preventing any bacterial growth. High-level disinfection involves eliminating all microorganisms that are present on the instrument's surface, including viruses, bacteria, and fungi. Sterilization is the most effective method of ensuring that all microorganisms are eliminated from the instrument, making it completely safe for use. Therefore, it is essential to follow the appropriate steps in instrument processing to ensure patient safety.
Instruments used to invade nonsterile body sites must undergo a process called sterilization. Sterilization is a crucial step to ensure the complete elimination of all microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, and spores, on the instruments. High-level disinfection and decontamination are also important in the cleaning process but are not sufficient for invasive procedures. Sterilization provides the highest level of safety for patients, reducing the risk of infection during invasive procedures.
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Hospitalized lung cancer patients will be fairly representative, at least at the time of the study, of all lung cancer patients since most persons who develop lung cancer are hospitalized at some point.
True
False
Answers
It is FALSE that hospitalized lung cancer patients will be fairly representative, at least at the time of the study, of all lung cancer patients since most persons who develop lung cancer are hospitalized at some point.
The statement is not necessarily true. Hospitalized lung cancer patients may not be representative of all lung cancer patients because not all individuals with lung cancer require hospitalization. Lung cancer can be diagnosed and managed in various healthcare settings, including outpatient clinics and specialized cancer centers. Additionally, the severity and stage of the disease can vary among patients, and hospitalization may not be required for all cases.
Therefore, the statement overgeneralizes by assuming that most lung cancer patients are hospitalized at some point, which is not accurate.
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what is tiling of soil and why it is important
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based on the three lectures and readings in this module, discuss the basis for the doctor of nursing practice degree and how you as a dnp prepared nurse will be expected to practice differently than a nurse with a masters preparation was expected to practice in the past. what are the knowledge, skills, attributes and attitudes that you will demonstrate in your day to day practice? how will you transform our healthcare system? what evidence demonstrates how dnp prepared nurses are contributing to healthcare?
Answers
The Doctor of nursing practice (DNP) degree equips advanced practice registered nurses (APRNs) with the skills to conduct research, implement evidence-based care, lead interdisciplinary teams, and improve patient care and healthcare systems. DNP-prepared nurses demonstrate attributes such as a commitment to patient care, leadership abilities, effective communication, and a role in healthcare transformation. Evidence shows that DNP-prepared nurses contribute to improved patient outcomes, collaborate with other healthcare professionals, conduct research, and drive quality improvement in care delivery.
The doctor of nursing practice degree is a practice-focused program intended to prepare the advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) to conduct research, translate research into practice, and implement evidence-based care, as well as to lead and collaborate with interdisciplinary teams to enhance the quality of patient care and healthcare systems.
Based on the three lectures and readings in this module, the basis for the doctor of nursing practice degree is to equip nurses with the expertise to transform healthcare delivery systems and promote quality care while being able to execute research that develops new ideas and techniques for patient care and to evaluate and enhance the effectiveness of existing ones. It also helps nurses to apply scientific evidence-based practice in nursing and provides training for nurses in making decisions about patient care. It equips the nurse with the knowledge and skills to assume leadership roles in health care delivery, thus enhancing the nurse's capacity to lead changes and promote the integration of health care systems to improve patient outcomes and patient care quality.
A DNP-prepared nurse will practice differently in several ways compared to a nurse with a master's degree. Some of the differences include:
Emphasis on Quality Improvement (QI): DNP-prepared nurses are expected to use data and technology to identify and evaluate care delivery methods to enhance the quality of care delivered to patients.Collaboration: DNP-prepared nurses are trained to work with other healthcare professionals and organizations to enhance the quality and safety of patient care.Innovation: DNP-prepared nurses are expected to innovate new care delivery techniques and lead organizational change.Leadership: DNP-prepared nurses are expected to use their expertise to promote the integration of healthcare systems to improve patient outcomes and healthcare quality.The knowledge, skills, attributes, and attitudes that a DNP-prepared nurse will demonstrate in their day-to-day practiceThe knowledge, skills, attributes and attitudes that a DNP-prepared nurse will demonstrate in their day-to-day practice include:
Commitment to Patient Care: DNP-prepared nurses are expected to promote patient safety and quality care and to use evidence-based practice to develop care plans and evaluate care outcomes.Leadership: DNP-prepared nurses are expected to work with other healthcare professionals to advance the quality of care and improve patient outcomes while leading care delivery projects and organizational change.Effective Communication: DNP-prepared nurses should communicate effectively with patients, their families, and other healthcare providers to enhance patient safety and care outcomes.Healthcare transformation:
The DNP-prepared nurses are key to transforming our healthcare system, by helping to transform the healthcare system through developing new models of care and influencing health policy.
Evidence of how DNP-prepared nurses are contributing to healthcare:
The evidence of how DNP-prepared nurses are contributing to healthcare is as follows:
Improved patient outcomes: Evidence demonstrates that DNP-prepared nurses provide effective care that improves patient outcomes. A study by the American Association of Colleges of Nursing (AACN) indicates that nurse practitioners have similar patient outcomes to those of doctors, including prescribing medications, and diagnosing and treating patients' medical conditions.Collaboration: DNP-prepared nurses are trained to work with other healthcare professionals and organizations to enhance the quality and safety of patient care.Research: DNP-prepared nurses are expected to conduct and translate research into practice, implement evidence-based care, and evaluate care effectiveness.Quality improvement: DNP-prepared nurses are expected to use data and technology to identify and evaluate care delivery methods to enhance the quality of care delivered to patients.Learn more about Doctor of nursing practice (DNP) degree: https://brainly.com/question/28014445
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An infant who has recently undergone cardiac surgery is prescribed intravenous medications; however, the nurse finds that the infant has poor intravascular access. Which route of administration may the primary health care provider prescribe in this situation?
Answers
Answer:
Intraosseous
Explanation:
Intraosseous administration is preferred in infants and toddlers who have poor vascular access in an emergent situation. It is preferred when intravenous (IV) access is impossible. Intrathecal administration is preferred when long-term medication administration is required. The medication will be directly administered into the pleural space when intrapleural administration is performed. Chemotherapeutic medications are commonly administered through this route. Chemotherapeutic agents, insulin, and antibiotics are administered through the intraperitoneal route.
Why do you think we don't have oil glands on the palms of our hands and soles of our feet?
Answers
In the palms of our hand sand soles, there is no sebaceous gland, therefore, it does not secrete oil and these glands are spread over throughout the body.
What are sebaceous glands?Except for the palms of the hands and soles of the feet, sebaceous glands are found throughout the skin. Sebum is an oily material made, the body is covered in glands the scalp and face have most of them.
The bulk of lipids on the skin's surface is provided by the sebaceous gland through the production of sebum, which keeps moisture in and prevents the skin from drying out.
Sebum primarily escapes onto the skin's surface via a wicking motion involving the hair shaft because sebaceous glands drain into the hair canal.
Therefore sebaceous glands secrete oil and are present in the entire body except for the palms and soles of our feet.
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Do you think tissue engineering is ethical or unethical? Why?
Answers
Answer:Tissue engineering (TE) is a promising new field of medical technology.
Explanation:However, like other new technologies, it is not free of ethical challenges. Identifying these ethical questions at an early stage is not only part of science's responsibility toward society, but also in the interest of the field itself.
Patient had an outpatient cystoscopy. The preoperative diagnosis is hematuria. Postoperative diagnosis is hematuria due to bladder cancer.
Answers
Hi. Your question is incomplete and this makes it impossible for it to be answered. However, when researching your question on the internet, I was able to find another question exactly like yours, which asked what was the CID 10 code for this case. So I hope the answer below can help you.
Answer:
C67.9
Explanation:
ICD 10 is a set of international disease codes. These codes aim to create a single language for all healthcare professionals around the world and thus streamline research, treatments and solutions for the problems patients are facing.
In the case shown in the question above, we can see that the patient has hematuria that can only be explained by the occurrence of bladder cancer. In this case, the CID 10 code is C67.9.
1. A medical order states that a patient is to receive 500 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride IV over two
hours. How fast is the IV running in ml/hr?
Answers
Hello,
I hope you and your family are doing well!
To find the rate at which the IV is running in ml/hr, you can use the formula:
rate = volume/time
In this case, the volume of the IV is 500 mL and the time it is to be infused is 2 hours. Substituting these values into the formula gives us:
rate = 500 mL / 2 hours = 250 mL/hr
Therefore, the IV is running at a rate of 250 mL/hr.
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The nurse is admitting a military veteran to the unit following an amputation of the lower extremity. Which of the following statements by the nurse would supply the most information about the patient's psychiatric well-being?
Answers
Answer:
tell where he was stationed, how long, how harsh the living environments were and what happened to make have an amputation and his BP
You are driving down a street when you notice a house is on fire. A person who you
assume is the owner is sitting on the front lawn, although you cannot immediately tell if
the person is injured or just upset. Emergency medical services (EMS) personnel are not
on the scene-in fact, it appears that no one is even aware of the situation. You decide to
stop and help. What are the first basic steps you should take?
Answers
The first step you should take in the given situation is to call 911, so that emergency medical services (EMS) personnel will be informed.
There are some basic steps in providing first aid and they include the following;
Assess the situationPlan for intervention Implement first aidEvaluate the situationFor the given scenario, after assessing the situation, you will definitely notice that the situation is a critical one. The first step to take as untrained professional is to get help before approaching the scene.
You can help by calling 911 so that emergency medical services (EMS) personnel will be informed, after which you keep the person safe before the emergency team arrives.
Thus, we can conclude that the first step in the given situation is to call 911.
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Answer:
911
Explanation:
For five different organ systems in the human body, identify a specialized cell type found in that system.
Answers
2. muscle cells
3. red blood cells
4. sperm cells
5. leukocyte
im not 100% sure but i hope this helps :)
Neurons, muscle cells, red blood cells, sperm cells, and leukocytes are the five different kinds of specialized cells found in the body.
What are specialized cells?
Microscale cells make up the human body. Together, these elements of life act harmoniously to create the human body. While numerous cells make up basic biological components like tissues, some perform more difficult and specialized activities.
These specialized cells have been carefully created to carry out the tasks for which they were created. The distinct ways that each of these cell types is created and functions make it possible for the cell to perform the specific bodily function for which it was designed.
Within the human brain, neurons are specialized cells that convey messages. These cells are available in a variety of sizes and forms. While these cells do have certain characteristics in common with other cells, they also possess unique traits that allow them to carry out the required communication duties.
Movement is made possible by muscle cells. The banded fibers that make up these cylindrical cells enable contraction.
Red blood cells transport oxygen throughout the body, supplying it to organs that need this vital gas. These cells lack a number of components that are typically seen in cells, including as mitochondria and a nucleus.
In order to reproduce as humans, specialized sperm cells are required. The nucleus makes up the majority of these cells.
Leukocyte cells function to prevent infections in the human body. When an infection occurs, these cells locate and eliminate germs within the body.
Therefore, Neurons, muscle cells, red blood cells, sperm cells, and leukocytes are the five different kinds of specialized cells found in the body.
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List all the bones on your thumb from proximal to distal. Do the same for your pinky finger.
What is the difference?
Answers
Answer:
Thumb= distal phalanx, promixal phalanx, metacarpal
Pinky= distal phalanges ,middle phalanges, prominal phalanges, metacarpal
Explanation:
Thumb bone from proximal to distal. Daumen = distale Phalanx, proximale Phalanx, Mittelhandknochen
Pinky = distale Phalangen, mittlere Phalangen, pronominale Phalangen, Mittelhandknochen.
What are the 14 phalanges?The phalange is one of the bones of the fingers and toes. Beim Menschen gibt es 14 Fingerglieder in jeder Hand und jedem Fuß, 2 in jedem Daumen und großen Zeh und 3 in den verbleibenden Fingern. They are connected to the metacarpal bones of the hands and the metatarsals of the feet.
What is a phalange?The phalanges are the bones that make up the fingers and toes. The human body has 56 phalanges, and each hand and foot has 14 phalanges. Each finger and toe has three phalanges, except that there are only two big toes and two big toes.
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What is one of the first things that your brain needs to determine in order to accurately perceive an
incoming image?
O-depth
O what is the figure and what is the background (figure-ground)
O the color of the item
O the movement path of the item
Answers
Answer:
the movement path of the item
Explanation:
The first thing that the brain needs to determine in order to accurately perceive an incoming image is the movement path of the item. So the correct option is D.
What is the process of image perception by the brain?
Recent research on visual perception has started to show how brain activity and consciousness visual experience are related. Transcranial magnetic stimulation of the human occipital lobe alters how people typically see objects, which may indicate that key components of visual perception are reliant on activity in early visual cortical regions.
Microelectrode recordings in animals reveal that numerous brain regions work together to produce the experience of the depth and brightness of visual surfaces. While neurons in future areas react in a way that is more akin to visual perception, activity in early areas is more closely connected with the physical characteristics of things.
There are about 30 discrete visual centers in the monkey brain, and each of these areas has separate modules and parallel processing streams, according to 40 years of neuroscience study.
Therefore, the correct option is D.
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A patient was in a car wreck and lost control over his left leg and left arm. He is admitted to a restorative care facility. In therapy, he is working on walking with a walker and strengthening his right arm. The nursing assistant suggests he participate in the bingo game at the care facility. She suggests that he brush his hair before going and places the brush in his right hand. The nursing assistant gives him his walker and leaves to attend other patients.
Which restorative care principle could the nursing assistant improve upon?
promote mobility
emphasize ability
prevent further disability
treat the whole person
Answers
Answer:
promote mobility
Explanation:
What are common medications prescribed to a client with schizophrenia, and what side effects and adverse effects should you look out for with those meds?
Answers
Common medications for schizophrenia include typical and atypical antipsychotics. Side effects may include drowsiness, weight gain, and metabolic changes, while adverse effects to watch for include extrapyramidal symptoms and neuroleptic malignant syndrome.
Common medications prescribed for schizophrenia include antipsychotics, both typical and atypical. Typical antipsychotics include medications like haloperidol and chlorpromazine, while atypical antipsychotics include medications like risperidone, olanzapine, and quetiapine.
While medications can vary in their specific side effects, some common side effects of antipsychotics include drowsiness, dizziness, blurred vision, dry mouth, constipation, weight gain, and sexual dysfunction. Additionally, some antipsychotics may increase the risk of metabolic changes such as diabetes and high cholesterol levels.
Adverse effects to be vigilant for include extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) such as tremors, stiffness, restlessness, and involuntary movements, which can be more common with typical antipsychotics. Another potential adverse effect is neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a rare but serious condition characterized by high fever, muscle rigidity, and altered mental status.
It is essential to closely monitor clients for any side effects or adverse reactions and communicate them to the prescribing healthcare professional. Each individual may respond differently to medications, so regular monitoring and open communication with healthcare providers are crucial for optimal management of schizophrenia and its associated medication effects.
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the combining form that means cause (of disease) is
Answers
The combining form that means "cause (of disease)" is etiology.
The term "etiology" is a noun form that denotes the study of causes of diseases.
Etiology refers to the study of the causes of diseases. It encompasses the factors that lead to the development of a disease, including genetic, environmental, social, and behavioral factors. Etiology has a crucial role in the diagnosis and treatment of diseases.
It is fundamental in identifying risk factors that can be modified or managed to prevent disease and promote good health. Etiology is also important in the development of new treatments and therapies for diseases.
The combining form eti/o derives from the Greek word aitia, which means "cause." Eti/o is a common prefix used in medical terminology. Other terms that use the eti/o prefix include etiology (the study of the causes of diseases), etiopathogenesis (the study of the causes and development of diseases), and etiologic agent (the cause of a disease).
Thus, the combining form that means "cause (of disease)" is eti/o.
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which of the following is not used to sanitize? iodine alcohol betadine dry heat
Answers
Dry heat is not used to sanitize.Sanitizing is the process of reducing the amount of germs, bacteria, and other microorganisms on a surface.
Which of the subsequent is not a sanitising method?Sanitizing does not employ dry heat. Reducing the number of germs, bacteria, and other microorganisms on a surface is the process of sanitising. It reduces the number of germs to a safe level but does not totally eradicate them.Food preparation, medical equipment, and other items that could be in contact with people are frequently sanitised. Using heat or chemical treatments to sanitise is common.Alcohol, bleach, phenolic chemicals, and iodine are examples of typical sanitising agents. Certain kinds of germs and bacteria can be killed with both alcohol and bleach.Phenolics can be hazardous to humans but are also excellent at killing a variety of bacteria. Medical equipment is frequently sterilised using iodine, which is safe for people.Since dry heat only dries off bacteria rather than really killing them, it cannot be utilised to sanitise. This is why it's used for sterilisation rather than sanitization, which is the total eradication of all germs.To learn more about sanitising method refer to:
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A 1984 study by ulrich found that when post-operative hospital patients were in a ______ treatment group, they were discharged from the hospital more quickly and reported less pain.
Answers
A 1984 study by Ulrich found that when post-operative hospital patients were in a therapeutics treatment group, they were discharged from the hospital more quickly and reported less pain.
Therapeutics is the practice of treating and caring for a patient with the goal of preventing and treating illness or reducing pain or harm.
A patient may get treatments and therapies with the aim of curing an illness or condition. This is referred to as curative or therapeutic care. The phrases are also applied to therapies that, in the absence of a cure, slow the course of the disease.
Therapeutics, when used broadly, refers to providing the patient with all of their needs, including both illness prevention and problem-specific management.
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6. CPG 101 V2 includes a six-step planning process. These steps include all of the following EXCEPT:
Answers
The Consumer Products Good (CPG) 101 V2 is the FDA guideline that provides the basic requirements and best practices for good manufacturing practices (GMPs) for the manufacturing of human food, animal food, dietary supplements, and cosmetics.
These guidelines provide a reference for manufacturers to follow to ensure that their products meet the required quality standards and are safe for human consumption. The six-step planning process of CPG 101 V2 includes:
Step 1: Preliminary Steps
Step2: Scope
Step 3: Hazard Analysis
Step 4: Preventive Controls
Step 5: Verification
Step 6: Record-keeping and Documentation
The steps mentioned above outline the CPG 101 V2's planning process, which ensures the production of safe, high-quality food products.
The FDA requires all food manufacturers to implement these steps to ensure that the products are manufactured under suitable conditions, maintain quality, and are free from contaminants. However, the six-step planning process of CPG 101 V2 does not include identifying the location of the production facility. Although, manufacturers should ensure that the facility they choose meets the requirement of FDA's good manufacturing practice.
Therefore, the step excluded from the planning process is to identify the location of the production facility. The six-step planning process is a robust guide for manufacturers to produce safe food products that meet the quality standards.
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Since im studying animals (im training to be a vet) what is the most fragile part of a dogs body?
Answers
Probably their muzzle.