Which option demonstrates when most vehicles lose their efficiency?


as they refuel

during starts and stops

during the testing phase

as they brake

Answers

Answer 1

Hey there ..

I think the answer is as they put brake ..

I am not sure .. just check the image also provided above .. ..

If u think this helped u ..plz mark me as brainliest ..

And follow me

Which Option Demonstrates When Most Vehicles Lose Their Efficiency?as They Refuelduring Starts And Stopsduring
Answer 2

Answer:

During starts and stops

Explanation:

"Many of the energy inefficiencies in vehicles occur during starts and stops."

found it in the text.


Related Questions

Generally, the primary source of all water supply is said to be

Answers

The main sources of water are surface water, groundwater and rainwater.

the term applied to the chemistry of the body​

Answers

Answer:

Biochemistry

Explanation:

Hope this helps :)

Answer:

Biochemistry

Have an amazing day!

Determine the Laplace transform and the associated region of convergence and pole- zero plot for each of the following functions of time: (a) x(t)-e-2,a(1) + e-3, u(1) (b) x(t) e-4, 11(1) + e-5'(sin 51)11(1) (c) x)lu(t) e"u-1)
(g) x(t)=10. elsewhere

Answers

The Laplace transform and associated region of convergence and pole- zero plot for each of the following functions of time is x(t)=10.

The Laplace transform, named after its discoverer Pierre-Simon Laplace (/lpls/), is an integral transform that changes a function of a real variable (often displayed as displaystyle t in the temporal domain) into a function of a complex variable (represented as displaystyle s in the complex domain) (in the complex frequency domain, also known as s-domain, or s-plane). The transform is a method for solving differential equations and has numerous uses in science and engineering. In particular, it converts convolution into multiplication and ordinary differential equations into algebraic equations. The Laplace transform is the integral for appropriate functions f.

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a ball bounces off a wall with a velocity whose magnitude is less than it was before hitting the wall. is the collision elastic? explain. O Yes, momentum is conserved so the co n must be elastic. ONo, there is a loss of kinetic energy in the collision, so it is inelasti

Answers

The correct answer is "no," because there is a loss of kinetic energy in the collision, so it is inelastic. In an inelastic collision, kinetic energy is not conserved, and some of it is converted into other forms of energy, such as heat or deformation.

A collision refers to an event where two or more objects come into contact with each other, resulting in a change in their motion or properties. Collisions can occur between objects of various sizes and in different contexts, such as physics, engineering, sports, or everyday life.  In an elastic collision, the total kinetic energy of the system is conserved before and after the collision. 

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Which of the following is true about silicosis?

A. The damage it causes can be reversed
B. It is not a serious concern for construction workers
C. It causes only minor damage to the lungs
D. The damage it causes is irreversible

Answers

Answer:

D. The damage it causes is irreversible

Explanation:

Silicosis is a long term lung disease caused by crystalline silica dust inhalation. There is no cure, and once the damage is done it cannot be reversed.

------------------

Like stated above, the damage is irreversible. Option A is incorrect.

Construction workers are constantly moving to build whatever they're working on. The disease will make it hard to breathe and will have a heavy effect on their lungs, preventing them from properly doing their jobs. Additionally, it's possible to get the disease from this job since you're constantly inhaling dust particles.

Silicosis does major damage to the lungs. The dust particles are attacked by the immune system which causes inflammation and eventually leads to areas of hardened and scarred lung tissue.

Thus, the best option is D.

hope this helps :)

Given all variables are previously declared integers, which expression is equivalent to the following expression? !(a > d || c != q)

a. a <= d || c == q

b. a <= d && c == q

c. a < d && c == q

d. a < d || c == q

Answers

The equivalent expression to !(a > d || c != q) is (a <= d && c == q).

The expression (a <= d && c == q) is equivalent to !(a > d || c != q).

The original expression contains the logical NOT operator (!) at the beginning, which negates the result of the expression inside the parentheses. Inside the parentheses, we have (a > d || c != q), which is a logical OR operation between (a > d) and (c != q). By De Morgan's Laws, the negation of a logical OR operation is equivalent to the logical AND operation of the negations of the individual conditions. Therefore, the expression (a <= d && c == q) is the equivalent expression, where (a <= d) corresponds to the negation of (a > d), and (c == q) corresponds to the negation of (c != q).

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A golfer and her caddy see lightning nearby. the golfer is about to take his shot with a metal club, while her caddy is holding a plastic handled umbrella. which person is at greater risk? Explain why?

Answers

Answer:

The golfer is at greater risk.

Explanation:

The golfer is holding a metal club. Metal is a good conductor for electricity (lightning), meaning electrons can pass through easily. Her caddy is at lesser risk because she is holding a plastic handled umbrella. Plastic is an insulator, which does not easily allow the movement of electrons to pass.

Consider atmospheric air at 25 C and a velocity of 25 m/s flowing over both surfaces of a 1-m-long flat plate that is maintained at 125 C. Determine the rate of heat transfer per unit width from the plate for values of the critical Reynolds number corresponding to 105 , 5 105 , and 106 .

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

Temperature of atmospheric air To = 25°C = 298 K

Free  stream velocity of air Vo = 25 m/s

Length and width of plate = 1m

Temperature of plate Tp = 125°C = 398 K

We know for air, Prandtl number Pr = 1

And for air, thermal conductivity K = 24.1×10?³ W/mK

Here, charectorestic dimension D = 1m

 

Given value of Reynolds number Re = 105

For laminar boundary layer flow over flat plate

= 3.402

Therefore, hx = 0.08199 W/m²K

So, heat transfer rate q = hx×A×(Tp – To)

                                          = 0.08199×1×(398 – 298)

why does the voltage fall from a certain point where the maximum voltage reached?​

Answers

Answer:

closer the voltage gets to its peak

Explanation:

The closer the voltage gets to its peak, the slower it changes, meaning less current has to flow. When the voltage reaches a peak at point b, the capacitor is fully charged and the current is momentarily zero. Step 2 - After reaching a peak, the voltage starts dropping.

The voltage falls from a certain point where the maximum voltage is reached due to high resistance in the electrical wiring or connectors.

What is voltage?

Charged electrons (current) are pushed through a conducting loop by the pressure of the power source in an electrical circuit, allowing them to perform tasks like lighting a lamp.

Less current must flow since the voltage fluctuates more slowly as it approaches its peak. The capacitor is fully charged, and the current is briefly zero when the voltage hits a peak at the point. Another reason for it can be a circuit component that is broken

Therefore, if the voltage drop is more than the parameter's upper limit, there is a fault in the circuit. High resistance in the electrical wires or connectors is the cause of this issue.

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need urgent help!!
Determine the point(s) P on the line e with equation x−6 = ( y−3)/4 = ( 1−z)/3
for which the line connecting P with Q(2, −6, 5) is perpendicular to e.

Answers

The quartiles divide a set of observations into four portions, each representing 25% of the observations, together with the minimum and maximum values of the data set. The interquartile range, a measurement of variation around the median, is calculated using quartiles.

How are quartiles determined?In order to quartile a set of data with n items (numbers), we choose the n/4th, n/2nd, and n/4th items. Interpolation between the adjacent items is used if indexes n/4, n/2, or 3n/4 are not integers.For instance, the first quartile Q1 of ordered data is the 25th item, the second quartile Q2 is the 50th item, and the third quartile Q3 is the 75th item. The fourth quartile Q4 would be the highest item of data, and the zeroth quartile Q0 would be the minimum item; however, these extreme quartiles are referred to as the minimum and maximum of a set, respectively.Calculation:

Statistical file: {2, -6, 5}

Quartile Q1: -6

Quartile Q2: 2

Quartile Q3: 5.

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need urgent help!!Determine the point(s) P on the line e with equation x6 = ( y3)/4 = ( 1z)/3for which

An assembly of positive and negative plates and separators in electrolyte is called what?

Answers

Answer:

  A battery

Explanation:

There are several words used to describe such an assembly:

  pile, battery, electrolytic cell

Hey guys can anyone list chemical engineering advancement that has been discovered within the past 20 years

Answers

Top 10 Emerging Technologies in Chemistry
Nanopesticides. The world population keeps growing. ...
Enantio selective organocatalysis. ...
Solid-state batteries. ...
Flow Chemistry. ...
Porous material for Water Harvesting. ...
Directed evolution of selective enzymes. ...
From plastics to monomers. ...

How do birds achieve take-off, gliding, dive, etc.? How do they modify their body shape?

Answers

Birds have a lot of different bones in there body that allows them to change the curvature of there wings making them able to become bullet shaped or or u shaped PLEASE MARK BRAINLIEST

A project ha following time chedule: Activity Time in Week Activity Time in Week 1-2 4 5-7 8 1-3 1 6-8 1 2-4 1 7-8 2 3-4 1 8-9 1 3-5 6 8-10 8 4-9 5 9-10 7 5-6 4 Contruct the network and compute: (1) TE and TL for each event (2) Float for each activity (3) Critical path and it duration

Answers

(1) TE and TL for each event

Event 1: TE=0, TL=0

Event 2: TE=4, TL=4

Event 3: TE=1, TL=5

Event 4: TE=2, TL=6

Event 5: TE=6, TL=12

Event 6: TE=1, TL=2

Event 7: TE=8, TL=16

Event 8: TE=9, TL=17

Event 9: TE=8, TL=18

Event 10: TE=16, TL=23

(2) Float for each activity

Activity 1-2: Float=0

Activity 1-3: Float=3

Activity 2-4: Float=2

Activity 3-4: Float=1

Activity 3-5: Float=0

Activity 4-9: Float=0

Activity 5-6: Float=0

Activity 5-7: Float=0

Activity 6-8: Float=7

Activity 7-8: Float=6

Activity 8-9: Float=5

Activity 8-10: Float=0

Activity 9-10: Float=0

(3) The critical path for this project is: 3-4, 4-9, 5-7, 7-8, 8-10, 9-10, with a total duration of 23 weeks.

THE SOLUTION

To construct the network and compute the requested information, we first need to create a list of events and activities.

From the given schedule, we can identify the following events and activities:

Events:

        1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10

Activities:

1-2: 4 weeks

1-3: 1 week

2-4: 1 week

3-4: 1 week

3-5: 6 weeks

4-9: 5 weeks

5-6: 4 weeks

5-7: 8 weeks

6-8: 1 week

7-8: 2 weeks

8-9: 1 week

8-10: 8 weeks

9-10: 7 weeks

Now we can compute the TE (time when an event is expected to start) and TL (time when an event is expected to be completed) for each event, as well as the float (amount of time that an activity can be delayed without delaying the project completion) for each activity.

TE and TL for each event:

Event 1: TE=0, TL=0

Event 2: TE=4, TL=4

Event 3: TE=1, TL=5

Event 4: TE=2, TL=6

Event 5: TE=6, TL=12

Event 6: TE=1, TL=2

Event 7: TE=8, TL=16

Event 8: TE=9, TL=17

Event 9: TE=8, TL=18

Event 10: TE=16, TL=23

Float for each activity:

Activity 1-2: Float=0

Activity 1-3: Float=3

Activity 2-4: Float=2

Activity 3-4: Float=1

Activity 3-5: Float=0

Activity 4-9: Float=0

Activity 5-6: Float=0

Activity 5-7: Float=0

Activity 6-8: Float=7

Activity 7-8: Float=6

Activity 8-9: Float=5

Activity 8-10: Float=0

Activity 9-10: Float=0

The critical path is the sequence of activities that have zero float, meaning they cannot be delayed without delaying the project completion. The critical path for this project is: 3-4, 4-9, 5-7, 7-8, 8-10, 9-10, with a total duration of 23 weeks.

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Consider the truss shown in the diagram. The applied forces are P1=650 N
and P2=350 N
and the distance is d=2.25 m
.
Part B - The Forces in the Members at Joint C
What are the forces in the two members CB
and CD
?
Express your answers in newtons to three significant figures. Enter negative value in the case of compression and positive value in the case of tension. Enter your answers separated by a comma.

Activate to select the appropriates symbol from the following choices. Operate up and down arrow for selection and press enter to choose the input value type

FCB
, FCD
=

Consider the truss shown in the diagram. The applied forces are P1=650 N and P2=350 N and the distance
Consider the truss shown in the diagram. The applied forces are P1=650 N and P2=350 N and the distance

Answers

The forces in members CB and CD considering the truss that is given are both 707.1 N.

How to calculate the force

We can solve these equations simultaneously to obtain the values of CB and CD. First, let's substitute cos(45°) = sin(45°) = 1/√2 and solve for CB:

-CB/√2 + CD/√2 = 0

CB = CD

Now, let's substitute this value of CB in the second equation of equilibrium:

CD/√2 + CD/√2 - P1 - P2 = 0

2CD/√2 = P1 + P2

CD = (P1 + P2)√2/2

Substituting the given values of P1, P2, and d, we get:

CD = (650 N + 350 N)√2/2 = 707.1 N

CB = CD = 707.1 N

Therefore, the forces in members CB and CD are both 707.1 N.

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A student is investigating the particles in a glass window, raindrops on the window, and the air around the window. Assume the window, the raindrops, and the air are all at 25 °C.

Answers

The glass is a solid and as such the attraction between its particles is strong enough to make them locked in one place. The raindrop is a liquid and as such the attraction between its particles is strong enough to hold them together, but not strong enough to prevent the particles from sliding past each other. The air is a gas and as such there is very little (minimal) attraction between its particles, thereby, making them to move freely.

What is matter?

Matter can be defined as anything (physical object or body) that has mass and takes up space. Thus, the mass of a physical object measures the amount of matter the object contains.

The states of matter.

In Science, water is an example of matter and it exists in three (3) main states or phases such as the following:

SolidLiquidGas

Based on scientific records and information, we know that all particles have various degrees of attraction to one another and this can be described as follows:

The glass is a solid and as such the attraction between its particles is strong enough to make them locked in one place. The raindrop is a liquid and as such the attraction between its particles is strong enough to hold them together, but not strong enough to prevent the particles from sliding past each other. The air is a gas and as such there is very little (minimal) attraction between its particles, thereby, making them to move freely.

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Complete Question:

A student is investigating the particles in a glass window, raindrops on the window, and the air around the window. Assume the window, raindrops, and the air are all at 25 degrees Celsius. Identify the particle structure in each sample of matter.

A horizontal jet of water (density=1000kg/m^3) is deflected perpendicularly to the original jet stream by a plate. the cross sectional area of the jet is 0.01m^2, and the speed of the jet is 30m/s. Determine the magnitude of force required to hold the plate in place. (Answer = 9kN) Please show all work.

Answers

The magnitude of force required to hold the plate in place is 9KN.

Mass of flow rate = velocity x density x area

final velocity of the jet in the direction of jet =0

Force exerted = mass flow rate(intialvelocity-finalvelocity)

Force = density x area x velocity^2=1000x0.01x30^2=9000N=9KN

What is Force?

Force is a external agent that could change the state of rest and motion of the body. It had a magnitude as well as the direction. The direction of force is the point where a force can be applied, and the application of a force is the point where force is applied.

The force can be defined as the pushing or pulling of an object. Push and pull are caused by the interaction of two objects. Force can also be expressed using terms like stretch and squeeze.

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technician A says that in any circuit, electrical current takes the path of least resistance. technician B says that while this is true in a series circuit, it's not entirely true in a parallel circuit. who is correct?

Answers

Answer:

  technician A is correct

Explanation:

Technician B has circuit topologies confused. In a series circuit, there is only one path for electrical current to take. In a parallel circuit, the current will divide between paths in proportion to the inverse of their resistance. The least resistance path will have the most current.

Technician A is mostly correct.

Answer every question of this quiz
Please note: you can answer each question only once.
Which number shows the intake valve?
OK

Answer every question of this quizPlease note: you can answer each question only once.Which number shows

Answers

I'd say number 4, number 3 looks like an exhaust valve

Your organization is in the process of microfilming all the old records in storage. The budget for this process is $500,000 over three years. You have contracted with a company to perform the microfilm services at $0.09 per page and have estimated that there are about 5.5 million pages to be converted. At the end of the first year, you review the invoice and see that you have been billed for converting 2,083,333 pages. 1. Determine your budget variance and what type it is. 2. Provide a short explanation that can be given to administration regarding the variance.

Answers

hah duty to it it hey he h very j is to

A yeast culture weighing 2 grams is removed from a refrigerator unit and is expected to grow at the rate of W'(t)=0.3e02 grams per hour at a higher controlled temperature. How much will the weight of the culture increase during the first 8 hours of growth? How much will the weight of the culture increase from the end of the 8th hour to the end of the 16th hour of growth?
The weight increase during the first 8 hours is approximately grams. (Type an integer or decimal rounded to three decimal places as needed.)

Answers

The weight of the culture will increase approximately 0.859 grams during the first 8 hours of growth.

To find the weight increase during the first 8 hours of growth, we can integrate the rate of growth function W'(t) over the interval [0, 8].

Given that W'(t) = \(0.3e^0.2\)grams per hour, the weight increase during the first 8 hours is:

\(∫[0, 8] W'(t) dt = ∫[0, 8] 0.3e^0.2 dt\)

Integrating this function, we have:

\(∫[0, 8] 0.3e^0.2 dt = 0.3∫[0, 8] e^0.2 dt\)

Integrating \(e^0.2\) with respect to t gives:

\(0.3 * (1/0.2) * e^0.2 ∣[0, 8] = 0.3 * (5 * e^0.2 - 1)\) ≈ 0.859 grams

Therefore, the weight of the culture will increase approximately 0.859 grams during the first 8 hours of growth.

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ký hiệu của vật liệu cơ khí

Answers

Answer:

by hìuuf5ëcz

Explanation:

6tgiïuggd

The denity of a certain type of jet fuel i 775 kg/m3. Determine it pecific gravity and pecific weight

Answers

The correct answer is Specific weight: w = [weight ÷ volume] = [9N ÷ 0.001m³] = 9000N/m³Density: w = [ × g] Where, g = acceleration due to gravity = 9.81m/sec². Specific gravity: G = [density of liquid ÷ density of water] As you know, The density of water = 1000kg/m³.

The density of a substance is divided by the density of water at 4 degrees Celsius to determine its specific gravity. The density of the substance and the density of the water must be represented in the same units for the calculation.distinguishes  While specific weight has dimensions, specific gravity is a dimensionless number. The gravitational field has no effect on a material's specific gravity, but it does have an effect on a material's specific weight. A substance's "Specific Gravity" is determined by dividing its mass by the mass of an equivalent volume of water at the same pressure and temperature.

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A ______ is a point, surface, or line used as a reference for measuring elevation.

Answers

Answer:

A benchmark is a point, surface, or line used as a reference for measuring elevation.

Explanation:

nolan is considering the use of several different types of alternate processing facility for his organization's data center. which one of the following alternative processing sites takes the longest time to activate but has the lowest cost to implement?

Answers

Since all hardware, software, and data must be loaded at the new site, a cold site is the least expensive choice, but it also has the longest switchover time.

Virtualization pioneer VMware offers DR through its vSphere Replication and Site Recovery Manager products, among others. The most crucial element in company continuity and catastrophe recovery planning is employee safety. A DRP's goal is to make sure that an organization is prepared to respond to a disaster or other event that affects information systems while minimizing the impact on daily operations. A backup location known as a "cold site" has little to no hardware installed.

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Food wastes are estimated to be 69% moisture, with the remaining portion containing 46.1% C, 8.8 % H, 27.2% O, 3.6% N, and other constituents.(a) Write a chemical formula for the C, H, O, N portion of the waste.(b) Write a balanced chemical reaction showing the production of methane.(c) What fraction of the volume of gas produced is methane?(d) What volume of methane is produced per kilogram of food waste at STP?(e) Find the HHV value of the methane in kilojoules per kilogram of food waste.

Answers

The chemical formula for the C, H, O, N portion of the waste can be represented as CH1.85O0.63N0.07.

(b) The balanced chemical reaction for the production of methane from organic waste is:CH1.85O0.63N0.07 + 0.25O2 → CO2 + 0.925CH4 + 0.025N2 + 0.63H2O(c) From the balanced chemical equation, the volume fraction omethane produced is 0.925.(d) At STP, the volume of 1 kg of methane is 22.4 m^3. Therefore, the volume of methane produced per kg of food waste is:0.925 x 22.4 m^3/kg = 20.72 m^3/kg(e) The higher heating value (HHV) of methane is 55.5 MJ/kg. Therefore, the HHV value of the methane produced from 1 kg of food waste is:HHV = 0.925 x 55.5 MJ/kg = 51.34 MJ/kg

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42. A vehicle has sagged rear springs and reduced rear curb riding height. This problem results
in?
A. Excessive positive camber on the front wheels
B. Excessive toe-out on the front wheels
C. Excessive positive caster on the front wheels
D. Excessive toe-in on the front wheels
43. On a vehicle equipped with rear parallel leaf springs and a solid rear axle, customer is
complaining that the vehicle reacts erratically (it darts) during turns. What is the most likely
cause of this complaint?
A. Incorrect ride height
B. Incorrect driveline angle
C. Loose rear axle U-bolts
D. Missing jounce/rebound bumpers
44. A power steering pump is being tested with a pressure gauge for maximum output pressure.
Which of the following statements is correct?
A. The pressure gauge should be attached to the pump return port
B. The steering wheel should be held in the right lock position
C. A maximum output pressure dead heading test should last no longer than 5 seconds
D. One should check output pressure with engine speed above 4000rpm​

Answers

Answer:1. Driving under the influence of any drug that makes you drive unsafely is:

a. Permitted if it is prescribed by a doctor

b. Against the law

c. Permitted if it is a diet pill or cold medicine

2. Which fires can you put out with water:

a. Tire fires

b. Gasoline fires

c. Electrical fires

3. How far should a driver look ahead of the vehicle while driving:

a. 9-12 seconds

b. 12-15 seconds

c. 18-21 seconds

4. To prevent shifting, there should be at least one tie-down for ever ____feet of cargo: a. 10

b. 15 c. 18

5. Which of these statements about downshifting is true:

a. When you downshift for a curve, you should do so before you enter the curve

b. When you downshift for a hill, you should do so after you start down the hill

c. When you downshift for a curve, you should do so after you enter the curve

6. How do you test hydraulic brakes for a leak:

a. Move the vehicle slowly and see if it stops when the brake is applied

b. With the vehicle stopped, pump the pedal three time, apply pressure then hold

For five seconds and see it the pedal moves.

c. Step on the brake pedal and accelerator at the same time and see if the vehicle moves

7. For an average driver, driving 55 MPH on dry pavement, it will take about _____ to bring The vehicle to a stop:

a. Twice the length of the vehicle

b. Half the length of a football field

c. The length of a football field

8. You are driving a vehicle with a light load, traffic is moving at 35 MPH in a 55 MPH zone. The safest speed for your vehicle in this situation is most likely:

a. 30 MPH

b. 35 MPH

c. 40 MPH

9. Which of these is a good rule to follow when driving at night:

a. Keep your speed slow enough to stop within the range of your headlights

b. Look directly at oncoming headlights

c. Keep your instrument lights bright

 

10. A moving vehicle ahead of you has a red triangle with an orange center on the rear. What does this mean?

a. The vehicle is hauling hazardous materials

b. It may be a slow-moving vehicle

c. It may be oversized

11. You wish to turn right form a two lane two way street to make the turn. Which of these Drawings show how the turn should be made.

12. You are driving a heavy vehicle and must exit a highway using an offramp that curves downhill:

a. Use the posted speed limit for the offramp

b. Slow down to a safe speed before the turn

c. Wait until you are in the turn before downshifting

13. Which of these statements about using mirrors is true:

a. You should look at a mirror for several seconds at a time

b. There are “blind spots” that your mirror cannot show you

c. A lane change requires you to look at the mirrors twice

14. You must park on the side of a level, straight, two-lane road. Where should you place the three reflective triangles?

a. one within 10 feet of the rear of the vehicle, one about 100 feet to the rear and one about 200 feet to the rear.

b. One with 10 feet of the rear of the vehicle, one about 100 feet to the rear and one about 100 feet from the front of the vehicle

c. One about 50 feet from the rear of the vehicle, one about 100 feet to the rear and one about 100 feet from the front of the vehicle

15. Your vehicle is in a traffic emergency and may collide with another vehicle if you do not take action. Which of these is a good rule to remember at such a time?

a. Stopping is always the safest action in a traffic emergency

b. Heavy vehicles can almost always turn more quickly than they can stop

c. Leaving the road is always more risky than hitting another vehicle

16. The most important reason for being alert to hazards is:

a. Law enforcement personnel can be called

b. You will have time to plan your escape if the hazard becomes an emergency

c. You can help impaired drivers

17. You are traveling down a long, steep hill. Your brakes begin to fade and then fail. What should you do?

a. Downshift

b. Pump the brake pedal

c. Look for an escape ramp or escape route

18. The most common cause of serious vehicle skids is:

a. Driving too fast for road conditions

b. Poorly adjusted brakes

c. Bad tires

19. To avoid a crash, you had to drive onto the right shoulder. You are now driving at 40 MPH on the shoulder. How should you move back onto the pavement?

a. If clear, come to a complete stop before steering back onto the pavement

b. Brake had to slow the vehicle, then steer sharply onto the pavement

c. Keep moving at the present speed and steer very gently back onto the pavement

20. If

a. Slide sideways and spin out

b. Go straight ahead but will turn if you turn the steering wheel

c. Go straight ahead even if the steering wheel is turned

A four-cylinder, four-stroke internal combustion engine has a bore of 3.7 in. and a stroke of 3.4 in. The clearance volume is 16% of the cylinder volume at bottom dead center and the crankshaft rotates at 2400 RPM. The processes within each cylinder are modeled as an air-standard Otto cycle with a pressure of 14.5 lbf/in. 2 and a temperature of 60 8 F at the beginning of compression. The maximum temperature in the cycle is 5200 8 R.
Based on this model,
1- Write possible Assumptions no less than three assumptions
2- Draw clear schematic for this problem
3- Determine possible Assumptions no less than three assumptions
4- Draw clear schematic for this problem.
5- calculate the net work per cycle, in Btu, and the power developed by the engine, in horsepower.

Answers

Answer:

1) The three possible assumptions are

a) All processes are reversible internally

b) Air, which is the working fluid circulates continuously in a closed loop

cycle

c) The process of combustion is depicted as a heat addition process

2) The diagrams are attached

5) The net work per cycle is 845.88 kJ/kg

The power developed in horsepower ≈ 45374 hP

Explanation:

1) The three possible assumptions are

a) All processes are reversible internally

b) Air, which is the working fluid circulates continuously in a closed loop

cycle

c) The process of combustion is depicted as a heat addition process

2) The diagrams are attached

5) The dimension of the cylinder bore diameter = 3.7 in. = 0.09398 m

Stroke length = 3.4 in. = 0.08636 m.

The volume of the cylinder v₁= 0.08636 ×(0.09398²)/4 = 5.99×10⁻⁴ m³

The clearance volume = 16% of cylinder volume = 0.16×5.99×10⁻⁴ m³

The clearance volume, v₂  = 9.59 × 10⁻⁵ m³

p₁ = 14.5 lbf/in.² = 99973.981 Pa

T₁ = 60 F = 288.706 K

\(\dfrac{T_{2}}{T_{1}} = \left (\dfrac{v_{1}}{v_{2}} \right )^{K-1}\)

Otto cycle T-S diagram

T₂ = 288.706*\(6.25^{0.393}\) = 592.984 K

The maximum temperature = T₃ = 5200 R = 2888.89 K

\(\dfrac{T_{3}}{T_{4}} = \left (\dfrac{v_{4}}{v_{3}} \right )^{K-1}\)

T₄ = 2888.89 / \(6.25^{0.393}\) = 1406.5 K

Work done, W = \(c_v\)×(T₃ - T₂) - \(c_v\)×(T₄ - T₁)

0.718×(2888.89  - 592.984) - 0.718×(1406.5 - 288.706) = 845.88 kJ/kg

The power developed in an Otto cycle = W×Cycle per second

= 845.88 × 2400 / 60  = 33,835.377 kW = 45373.99 ≈ 45374 hP.

A four-cylinder, four-stroke internal combustion engine has a bore of 3.7 in. and a stroke of 3.4 in.


What is the difference between time-series and cross-sectional
data? Give an example of how you would use each one?

Answers

Time-series data and cross-sectional data are two distinct types of data used in statistical analysis. Here's an explanation of each type and an example of how they can be used:

Time-series data:

Time-series data refers to a sequence of observations collected over regular intervals of time. In time-series data, the variable(s) of interest are measured and recorded at different points in time. This type of data allows for the analysis of trends, patterns, and relationships that evolve over time.

Example: Let's say you have collected daily temperature readings for a particular city over the past year. Each observation includes the date and the corresponding temperature. You can use this time-series data to analyze seasonal patterns, identify temperature trends, or forecast future temperatures.

Cross-sectional data:

Cross-sectional data, also known as snapshot data, represents observations taken at a particular point in time. In cross-sectional data, the variable(s) of interest are measured for multiple individuals, entities, or objects simultaneously. This type of data allows for comparisons and analysis across different groups or categories.

Example: Suppose you want to study the average income levels across various professions in a particular city. You collect data by surveying individuals from different professions within the city. Each observation includes the profession and the corresponding income. By analyzing this cross-sectional data, you can compare the income levels between different professions and identify any disparities.

In summary, time-series data focuses on changes over time, while cross-sectional data focuses on comparisons across different groups or categories at a specific point in time. Both types of data provide valuable insights into different aspects of statistical analysis and can be used to answer various research questions.

True or false: Anthropologists are highly qualified to suggest, plan, and implement social ... An applied anthropology approach to urban planning begins by.

Answers

True. Anthropologists are highly qualified to suggest, plan, and implement social interventions because they have a deep understanding of cultural and social dynamics.

Explanation:

Anthropologists are indeed highly qualified to suggest, plan, and implement social interventions because they have specialized training in understanding cultural and social dynamics. They possess unique skills in conducting ethnographic research, which enables them to gain a deep understanding of the social and cultural context of a community. This understanding is essential in designing social interventions that are effective, culturally sensitive, and sustainable.

An applied anthropology approach to urban planning begins by conducting ethnographic research, which involves observing and interviewing community members to gain insights into their values, beliefs, and practices. This research helps anthropologists to identify the challenges and opportunities facing a particular community and to understand the social and cultural factors that may influence the success of any social intervention.

Based on this research, anthropologists can work with urban planners to design interventions that are culturally appropriate and effective. This collaboration helps ensure that interventions are aligned with community values and beliefs, which can enhance their success and acceptance. Anthropologists can also help to evaluate the effectiveness of social interventions by tracking outcomes and assessing community feedback.

Overall, the applied anthropology approach to urban planning recognizes the importance of community participation, cultural sensitivity, and context-specific interventions. This approach can help to create sustainable, effective, and equitable urban spaces that are responsive to the needs and aspirations of diverse communities.

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