1) In order to prepare an optimal heat-fixed bacterial smear for staining, one must be aware of a couple of factors that may lead to poor results; briefly explain these. Why is it necessary to heat fix a smear for simple staining
Answers
In order to prepare an optimal heat-fixed bacterial smear for staining, one must be aware of a couple of factors that may lead to poor results. Heat fixation is necessary to preserve bacterial cells and to adhere them to the slide.
These factors that may lead to poor results include Not adding an appropriate amount of bacteria on the slide, Not allowing the smear to air dry before heat fixing it, Excessive heat during the fixing process which can distort and even break bacterial cells, and Not allowing the slide to cool down before staining it.
Heat fixing also kills the bacteria, makes them adhere to the slide, and coagulates bacterial proteins to make them more visible under the microscope. In addition, heat fixing improves the penetration of stains into bacterial cells so that they can be observed more easily under the microscope.
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Related Questions
A group of scientists determines that a mitochondrial DNA sequence shared by two species has a constant mutation rate. The sequences of mitochondrial DNA for the two species are shown below. Species A: GACTGGGCATTA Species B: GACCGGACATTA Based on this information, which of the following best explains the difference in the DNA sequence between the two species? Species A and B probably share the most recent ancestor because they only differ by three mutations. Species A and B have fewer differences between DNA sequences means that fewer mutations occurred. Species A and B probably have distinct ancestors because they have many differences in mutations. Species A and B are closely related because they differ by five mutations in their DNA sequence.
Answers
Species A and B have fewer differences between DNA sequences means that fewer mutations occurred. It is likely due to sequence homo-logy.
Whta are mutations?A mutation is any alteration in the nucleotide (DNA) sequence of the genome of a particular organism.
The linear order of nucleotides and their differences (mutations) can be used to infer homo-logy between two species.
In this case, there are only two different nucleotides in these sequences, thereby sequence homo-logy indicates a likely common origin.
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Answer: Species A and B have fewer differences between DNA sequences means that fewer mutations occurred.
Explanation:
Took the test and got it right
according to entwistle, one of the major critiques of the allies model comes from
Answers
According to Entwistle, one of the major critiques of the Allies model comes from cultural diversity.
The Allies model, developed by Entwistle, is a framework for integrating psychology and theology. It emphasizes the importance of understanding the relationship between psychology and theology and how they can inform each other in the counseling process. However, one significant critique of this model is its limited applicability to diverse cultural contexts.
Cultural diversity plays a crucial role in counseling, as different cultures may have unique values, beliefs, and ways of understanding and experiencing psychological and spiritual aspects of life. Critics argue that the Allies model, which was developed within a predominantly Western cultural context, may not adequately address the needs and perspectives of individuals from diverse cultural backgrounds.
Acknowledging and addressing cultural diversity is essential for providing culturally sensitive and effective counseling interventions. Thus, this critique highlights the need for models that consider and incorporate diverse cultural perspectives in the integration of psychology and theology.
In summary, one of the major critiques of the Allies model, as identified by Entwistle, comes from the perspective of cultural diversity.
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Which piece of evidence most clearly supports this reason? A recent study shows that most consumers negatively perceive a GMO label as a warning. GMO foods can offer consumers nutritional benefits. Referring to GMO foods as "Frankenstein foods" stirs consumers’ emotions. Some GMO crops require fewer resources to produce, so they are good for the environment.
Answers
The statement 'GMO crops require fewer resources to produce, so they are good for the environment' is TRUE. GMO crops can also exhibit higher yields.
What are genetically modified organisms?Genetically modified organisms (GMOs) are organisms modified by using genetic engineering techniques.
GMO crops are modified in order to exhibit some type of advantage compared to natural (non-modified) crops.
For example, GMO crops may exhibit higher grain yield or resistance to insecticides and herbicides.
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Answer:
A- A recent study shows that most consumers negatively perceive a GMO label as a warning.
Explanation:
Correct on EDGE
The measurement of ________ compares the density of urine to the density of water.
Answers
The measurement of specific gravity compares the density of urine to the density of water.
What exactly is specific gravity?
Relative density, also known as specific gravity, is the ratio of a substance's density (mass per unit volume) to the density of a given reference material.
Specific gravity is almost always measured in relation to water at its densest (at 4 °C or 39.2 °F); for gases, the reference is room temperature air (20 °C or 68 °F). In scientific circles, the term "relative density" (often abbreviated r.d. or RD) is often preferred, whereas the term "specific gravity" is frowned upon.
If the relative density of a substance is less than one, it is less dense than the reference; if it is greater than one, it is denser than the reference. The densities are equal if the relative density is exactly one; that is, equal volumes of the two substances have the same mass.
If water is used as the reference material, then any substance with a relative density (or specific gravity) less than one will float in it. An ice cube, for example, with a relative density of about 0.91 will float. A substance that has a relative density greater than one sinks.
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Analyzing Weather Maps
Page 1Page 2
A 3 column table with 6 rows, titled Atmospheric Conditions Associated with Cold Fronts. Column 1 is titled Factor and contains these entries: Dew point, Humidity, Precipitation, Pressure, Temperature. Column 2 is titled Before Front Passes and contains these entries: High, More, Showers, Decreases, Warm. Column 3 is titled After Front Passes and contains these entries: Low, Less, Showers, then no showers, Increases, Becomes cooler.
Which conditions are likely to follow the current conditions in the area? Select three responses.
high dew point
less humidity
no precipitation
lower pressure
cooler temperatures
Answers
Answer:
Less humidity, No precipatation, and cooler temperatures
Explanation:
sorry for spelling
Answer:
less humidity
no precipitation
cooler temperatures
Explanation:
got it right on edge
Why does Iceland have geothermal energy?
Answers
Answer:
Due to the geological location of Iceland (over a rift in continental plates), the high concentration of volcanoes in the area is often an advantage in the generation of geothermal energy, the heating and making of electricity. During winter, pavements near these areas (such as Reykjavík and Akureyri) are heated up.
Explanation:
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Answer:
Due to the geological location of Iceland (over a rift in continental plates), the high concentration of volcanoes in the area is often an advantage in the generation of geothermal energy, the heating and making of electricity. During winter, pavements near these areas (such as Reykjavík and Akureyri) are heated up.
Explanation:
Which organisms are most closely related?
A. Aimophila aestivalis and Passerella iliaca
B. Mergus serrator and Mergus merganser
C. Junco hyemalis and Clangula hyemalis
D. Somateria fischeri and Olor columbianus
Answers
Answer:
The answer is B. Mergus serrator and Mergus merganser
Explanation:
They are ducks and they are closley related.bacteria are advantageous as well as disadvantageous. why
Answers
Answer:
ADVANTAGES:
Bacteria are involved in production of many food products such as yogurt, cheese, pickles, etc.
Bacteria break down waste material so that our environment is not permanently cluttered with garbage, dead bodies, etc.
Bacteria are responsible for the production of important essential compounds that are necessary for life such as vitamin K production by E. coli in the gut
DISADVANTAGES:
Some bacteria cause infections or produce toxic substances that are a threat to life and/or health.
Bacteria cause spoiling of food so that it does not keep as long as we may desire.
Some bacteria may cause infections of plants, threatening our food supply or ornamental plant.
DNA polymerase is an enzyme and “her” job is to_______.
Answers
Answer:
create DNA molecules by assembling nicleotides , the building block of DNA
Explanation:
hope this helps
summarize the defining features of prophase through telophase, pointing out those which you used in the microscope slide to determine the stage.
Answers
To determine the stage of mitosis using a microscope slide, observe the organization of chromosomes, the state of the nuclear envelope, and the presence or absence of the nucleolus.
The stages of mitosis are Prophase where the chromatin condenses to chromosomes, and the nucleolus disappears. Then in metaphase the chromosomes align in straight line. In Anaphase the sister chromatids are pulled apart and the cell elongates. In telophase, the chromosomes reach the opposite poles.
The defining features of the stages of mitosis from prophase through telophase are as follows:
1. Prophase: Chromatin condenses into chromosomes, each consisting of two sister chromatids. The nucleolus disappears, and the nuclear envelope starts to break down. The mitotic spindle, consisting of microtubules, begins to form. Under a microscope, you can identify prophase by the visible condensed chromosomes and the disappearance of the nucleolus.
2. Metaphase: Chromosomes align at the metaphase plate (the equator of the cell) and spindle fibers attach to the centromeres of each chromosome. In a microscope slide, the key feature to identify metaphase is the straight line of chromosomes in the center of the cell.
3. Anaphase: Sister chromatids are pulled apart by the spindle fibers towards opposite poles of the cell. The cell begins to elongate. Anaphase can be identified under a microscope by observing the separated chromatids moving towards the poles and the elongation of the cell.
4. Telophase: The chromosomes reach the opposite poles of the cell, and the nuclear envelope starts to reform around them. The chromosomes uncoil and become less condensed, returning to chromatin. The nucleolus reappears, and the mitotic spindle disassembles. Telophase can be identified under a microscope by the presence of two distinct nuclei within a single cell and the reformation of the nuclear envelope.
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NEED HELP WITH BIOLOGY HW
Answers
Answer:
a population of mushrooms
a group of influenza viral particles within a host
Which of the following is an example of hybridization?
A) Special enzymes are used to break DNA strands at certain locations.
B) Levi crosses a horse with a donkey to create a mule. The mule is stronger than both of its parents.
C) The genes from a two monkeys are combined and injected into a bacterium.
D) Tracy will only cross seedless fruit trees. Over time, her entire orchard is made of seedless fruit trees.
Answers
Answer:
the answer is B hope this helps
what does it mean when a plant isnt going down
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
Wilting of leaves.
This terrestrial system is characterized by evergreen shrubs, mild, wet winters, and warm, dry summers. The vegetation in this area has adapted to frequent fires and is either fire resistent or uses fire to germinate its seeds.
Chaparral
Desert
Temperate Grasslands
Savanna
Answers
The terrestrial system characterized by evergreen shrubs, mild, wet winters, and warm, dry summers is called chaparral. This vegetation in this region has adapted to frequent fires and is either fire-resistant or uses fire to germinate its seeds.
Chaparral is a Mediterranean climate's ecosystem. It is characterized by mild, wet winters and warm, dry summers, as well as a diverse plant community that has adapted to frequent fires. The vegetation in this region is either fire-resistant or uses fire to germinate its seeds. Fire is necessary to remove dead plant material and return nutrients to the soil in this area.
Without regular fires, the chaparral would eventually become a dense forest and lose its distinctive characteristics.The plants in chaparral region:Some of the common plants of the chaparral include chamise, manzanita, ceanothus, toyon, and scrub oak. The vegetation in this area, which is adapted to fires, has the capacity to sprout new growth from a living root crown or underground bulb. Some plants also have seeds that require heat from a fire to germinate.
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4 Label the integumentary structures and areas indicated in the diagram hof Startow and Hai shaft dewel_hele ver dem Biol S. Label the layers of the epidermis in thick skin. Then, complete the statements that follow stolom Chambre - Wonfi๒๒า 96 10กว่า Se boste ww से Glands that respond to rising androgen levels are the glands are epidermal cells that play a role in the immune response b. c Tactile corpuscles are located in the d corpuscles are located deep in the dermis 6. What substance is manufactured in the skin and plays a role in calcium absorption elsewhere in the body
Answers
The integumentary structures and areas indicated in the diagram hof Startow and Hai shaft are labeled in the Biol S. The layers of the epidermis in thick skin are also labeled.
Which glands respond to rising androgen levels in the body?The integumentary structures labeled in the diagram hof Startow and Hai shaft would require visual reference to accurately label them.The layers of the epidermis in thick skin include the stratum corneum, stratum lucidum (only present in thick skin), stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, and stratum basale.Glands that respond to rising androgen levels are the sebaceous glands, which secrete oily substances onto the skin. Langerhans cells are epidermal cells that play a role in the immune response, acting as antigen-presenting cells. Tactile corpuscles are located in the dermal papillae of the dermis, and they are responsible for detecting light touch and pressure.Pacinian corpuscles are located deep in the dermis and are sensitive to vibration and deep pressure.The substance manufactured in the skin that plays a role in calcium absorption elsewhere in the body is vitamin D. When exposed to sunlight, a precursor molecule in the skin is converted to vitamin D, which is then utilized in the absorption of calcium.
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write an open letter addressed to drivers and motorists. Make an appeal to them to follow speed limits and explain to them the comsequences.of not following such.
Answers
Pls do follow the speed limit or else i will hint you down .
By Me
Vhat function does the cytoplasm perform in plant and animal cells?
A. It directs cellular activity.
B. It holds the cell organelles.
C. It forms a cellular boundary.
D. It makes proteins for the cell.
Answers
the answer is b ..........
Explanation:
b
HAP
WA :
7.1.5 Journal: Your Traits
Biology 1
Points Possible: 20
Journal
Shaniya Jeter
Name:
Date:
1. Each person's DNA contains certain genes that code for specific traits. List at
least 15 traits that make up your body's appearance. Your traits are things like
eye color, arm length, or foot size.
Answers
Answer:
eye colour
straightness of legs
foot size
hair colour
complexion
height
shape of nose
arm length
palm lines
shape of lips
shape of eyes
skin type
availability of skin hair
size of ear
What is the best way to improve muscular endurance?
Answers
The best way to increase muscular endurance is by using light resistance during exercise with multiple repetitions.
Muscular endurance is basically the ability to continue contracting a muscle, or a group of muscles, against some resistance like weights or even body weight, over a period of time. It basically refers to how long our muscles can sustain a particular exercise. Improving muscular endurance helps to enhance the overall health and fitness of the body.
A greater amount of muscular endurance allows a particular person to complete more number of repetitions of a particular exercise, for example, pushups or squats. The best way to increase muscle endurance is to use light resistance while exercising and doing multiple repetitions.
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what percentage of the world's animal tissue is comprised of ants?
Answers
The percentage of the world's animal tissue that is comprised of ants is approximately 10%.
Ants are omnipresent and can be found in many places around the world. They play essential roles in ecosystems as decomposers, predators, and seed dispersers. While their individual size is relatively small, their large numbers contribute to their overall biomass.
Estimating the exact percentage of the world's animal tissue comprised of ants is challenging due to the vast number of species and variations in population densities. However, an estimation states that the probable percentage of the ant's total contributing biomass is 10%. This estimate considers the combined biomass of all ant species, considering their collective weight as a proportion of the total animal biomass on Earth.
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TRUE/FALSE: The goal of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is to determine the sequence of nucleotides in a stretch of DNA.
Answers
It is false that the goal of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is to determine the sequence of nucleotides in a stretch of DNA.
A given DNA segment can be quickly multiplied (amplified) into millions or billions of copies using the polymerase chain reaction (abbreviated PCR), allowing for more in-depth analysis. In PCR, a section of the genome to be amplified is chosen using short synthetic DNA fragments called primers. Multiple rounds of DNA synthesis are then used to amplify that segment.
PCR, or polymerase chain reaction. PCR was first developed around the middle of the 1980s, roughly the time the Human Genome Project was being contemplated before it was launched at the end of that decade. Since then, PCR has proved extremely important to numerous fields of biology and scientific research. Given that we're visiting the Genome Institute, it's important to note that the Human Genome Project's early stages relied heavily on this technology. And it continues to play a significant role today.
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Explain why, in terms of photons, ultraviolet light can damage cells in your skin but visible light cannot.
Answers
Because UV waves are shorter than visible light waves, UV has more energy than regular light.
More importantly, UV photons have enough energy to damage or destroy DNA, whereas visible and infrared photons do not. When we absorb visible or infrared photons, the energy carried by the photon heats us up, but unlike ultraviolet photons, it does not permanently damage our cells.
The UV camera simply shows more melanin accumulation than we could see on our own, and the damage appears as a dark spot on the skin. Dry skin, which appears as a greenish glow or as bright green spots where the dry skin has flaked off, is also revealed by UV cameras.
Because UV waves are shorter than visible light waves, UV has more energy than regular light. UV photons have the necessary energies to cause chemical reactions.
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Which of these
BEST describes why
DNA never leaves
the nucleus?
A. DNA is a very large molecule plus it is a really
important molecule for life that needs
protection.
B. Most DNA serves absolutely no purpose so it
should always stay at home in the nucleus.
C. DNA just cannot compete with other
molecules such as RNA.
Answers
Answer:
A. DNA is a very large molecule plus it is a reallyimportant molecule for life that needsprotection.
Explanation:
DNA cannot leave the nucleus because that would risk it getting damaged. DNA carries the genetic code and all of the information needed for cells and organisms to function properly. If it were damaged or mutated, that would be disastrous for the organism, and could cause serious illnesses or even death.
DNA is a very large molecule plus it is a really important molecule for life that needs protection. Thus, option A is correct.
Why DNA cannot leave the nucleus?DNA will not leave the nucleus as it is because that would risk it as getting it damaged. DNA has carries the genetic code and all of the information needed for the cells and the organisms to function properly. If it has been damaged or mutated, that would bethe disastrous for the organism, and could cause the serious illnesses or even death.
mRNA could leave the nucleus, but the DNA cannot leave the nucleus because RNA has been considered as the single-stranded, and DNA has been double-stranded, so RNA has been smaller than the DNA.
DNA would be not a single-stranded structure. While RNA has been present in the single stranded form in the cell. Due to this, the double-stranded structure of the DNA seems longer than that of RNA to cross the nuclear membrane in the cell. As a result of this, RNA can easily leave the nucleus but DNA couldn't.
Therefore, DNA is a very large molecule plus it is a really important molecule for life that needs protection. Thus, option A is correct.
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List and explain clinical procedures, laboratory tests, and abbreviations that pertain to the urinary system.
Answers
In conclusion, clinical procedures like urinalysis and cystoscopy, laboratory tests such as BUN and creatinine, and abbreviations like UTI and CKD play vital roles in diagnosing and monitoring urinary system conditions. These tests and procedures help healthcare professionals understand the functioning and health of the urinary system, enabling appropriate treatment and management plans.
The urinary system consists of various clinical procedures, laboratory tests, and abbreviations that help in diagnosing and monitoring conditions related to the urinary system. Here is a list of some commonly used ones:
1. Clinical procedures:
a. Urinalysis: This test analyzes the physical, chemical, and microscopic properties of urine to detect urinary tract infections, kidney diseases, and other abnormalities.
b. Cystoscopy: A procedure where a thin tube with a camera is inserted into the urethra to visualize the urinary bladder and urethra, helping diagnose urinary tract issues.
c. Urodynamic testing: This assesses the function of the bladder and urethra by measuring urine flow rate, bladder pressure, and muscle activity during urination.
2. Laboratory tests:
a. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN): Measures the amount of urea nitrogen in the blood, providing an indication of kidney function.
b. Creatinine: Measures the level of creatinine in the blood, which helps determine kidney function.
c. Urine culture: Identifies and tests for bacteria or other organisms in the urine to diagnose urinary tract infections.
3. Abbreviations:
a. UTI: Urinary tract infection
b. CKD: Chronic kidney disease
c. ESWL: Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy, a non-invasive procedure to break down kidney stones.
In conclusion, clinical procedures like urinalysis and cystoscopy, laboratory tests such as BUN and creatinine, and abbreviations like UTI and CKD play vital roles in diagnosing and monitoring urinary system conditions. These tests and procedures help healthcare professionals understand the functioning and health of the urinary system, enabling appropriate treatment and management plans.
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a. which category of energy related to the organisms in model 2 is directly available to the car- nivore who eats the herbivores: grass, respiration, biomass or waste?
Answers
The category of energy related to the organisms in model 2 that is directly available to the carnivore who eats the herbivores is biomass. Biomass is the stored chemical energy from the food eaten by the herbivores, which is then passed on to the carnivore when it eats the herbivores.
Biomass is a term that refers to the total amount of organic matter present in a particular area. The herbivores in Model 2 are a source of biomass energy because they consume plants for food, which results in the creation of organic matter. Biomass energy is often utilized to produce heat and electricity. The following are some additional details about the other energy-related categories mentioned in the query:Respiration: The process of cellular respiration generates energy in the form of ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate).ATP is a high-energy molecule that fuels most cellular processes. Carbon dioxide and water are produced as byproducts when glucose and oxygen react during cellular respiration. Heat energy is also produced as a byproduct of cellular respiration.Grass: Energy is stored in the form of sugars and carbohydrates by photosynthesis in plants. The grass is a plant that has been mentioned in the query, and it is a source of energy for herbivores. However, this energy is not directly available to the carnivore who eats the herbivores.Waste: Waste refers to organic matter that is no longer of use to an organism. Waste does not contain energy that is directly available to other organisms. Therefore, the energy-related category of waste is not directly available to the carnivore who eats herbivores.In Model 2, the carnivore who eats the herbivores directly gains the energy that is present in the herbivores. In this context, the category of energy related to the organisms in Model 2 that is directly available to the carnivore who eats the herbivores is biomass energy.Learn more about biomass: https://brainly.com/question/25876556
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Which is the snowy owl's genus?
a) Scandiacus
b) Bubo
Answers
Answer:
bubo
Explanation:
Horned owls and eagle-owls
Camille notices that the leaves of her pothos plant are drooping this morning. The leaves were not droopy yesterday. She decides the plant needs to be watered. What had Camille just done? A. calculated the probability of the plant's ability to survive without water B. devised a controlled experiment about the effect of water on plant leaves C. formed a hypothesis based on quantitative data she has collected D. made an inference based on past experience and observation
Answers
Answer:
D. made an inference based on past experience and observation.
Explanation:
Observation involves careful study of a phenomenon.
Camille noticed that the leaves of her pothos plant were drooping this morning and that the leaves were not droopy yesterday as a result of her stern observation. She decided the plant needs to be watered to prevent it from dropping .
This typically suits her making an inference based on past experience and observation.
Answer:
D. made an inference based on past experience and observation.
Explanation:
Observation involves careful study of a phenomenon.
Camille noticed that the leaves of her pothos plant were drooping this morning and that the leaves were not droopy yesterday as a result of her stern observation. She decided the plant needs to be watered to prevent it from dropping .
This typically suits her making an inference based on past experience and observation.
Need Answer Now! Why are fossil fuels unevenly distributed?
Answers
Answer:
The deposits truly depend on climate and the organisms from long ago that make fossil fuels out of fossilized remains. At that rate, the fuel will not be evenly distributed, rather split into some form of groups.
__________________________________________________________
Questions?Ask in comments box.
what needs to happen for a population to lower competition?
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
When a population reaches a high density, there are more individuals trying to use the same quantity of resources
that's all i know.
what type of biomolecule contains phosphorus
Answers
Answer:DNA,RNA,ATP
Explanation: